1)

(a)Who sanctified the floor of the Azarah of the Beis Hamikdash (with two Korb'nos Todah and 'Shir shel Pega'im')?

(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Velakach ha'Kohen"?

(c)From where do we now learn that nothing may interrupt between the Kohen's feet and the floor of the Azarah?

(d)Having taught us that the Kohen may not stand on ...

1. ... vessels whilst performing the Avodah, why does our Mishnah find it necessary to add an animal?

2. ... an animal, why does then he need to add another Kohen's foot?

1)

(a)David Hamelech - sanctified the floor of the Azarah of the Beis Hamikdash (with two Korb'nos Todah and Shir shel Pega'im).

(b)We learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Velakach ha'Kohen" that - nothing may interrupt between the hand of the Kohen and the K'li Shareis with which he receives the blood of a Korban.

(c)We now learn that nothing may interrupt between the Kohen's feet and the floor of the Azarah - from the equivalent Din regarding his hands and a K'li Shareis.

(d)In spite of having taught us that the Kohen may not stand on ...

1. ... vessels whilst performing the Avodah, our Mishnah finds it necessary to add an animal - to teach us that not only is Miyn be'she'Eino Miyno (a different material than the Kohen's foot) Chotzetz, but that even Miyn be'Miyno is Chotzetz too.

2. ... an animal, he nevertheless needs to add another Kohen's foot - to teach us that not only is Miyn Beheimah Chotzetz, but that even Miyn Adam is Chotzetz, too.

2)

(a)What does Rebbi Eliezer say in a Beraisa about a Kohen performing the Avodah whilst standing with one foot on a vessel or on a stone, and the other, on the floor of the Azarah?

2)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer states in a Beraisa that if a Kohen performs the Avodah whilst standing with one foot on a vessel or on a stone, and the other, on the floor of the Azarah - the Avodah is Kasher, provided he would not have fallen over had the vessel or the stone been removed.

3)

(a)What does Rebbi Ami say about a Kohen standing on a stone-slab in the Azarah which has come loose and which one ...

1. ... does not intend to fix (because they have in mind to replace it)?

2. ... intends to fix?

(b)According to Rabah Zuti's version of the She'eilah, the Kohen performs the Avodah on a spot where the stone-slab has been removed. What is then the She'eilah? What reason do we initially ascribe to Rebbi Ami for thinking that the Avodah might be Pasul?

(c)What prompts us to retract from this explanation and decide that David Hamelech certainly sanctified the floor of the Azarah together with the ground down to the center of the earth?

(d)Then what is the She'eilah? Why might the Avodah be Pasul?

3)

(a)Rebbi Ami rules that if a Kohen stands on a stone-slab in the Azarah which has come loose and which they ...

1. ... do not intend to fix (because they have in mind to replace it) - his Avodah is Pasul.

2. ... intend to fix - it is a She'eilah as to whether his Avodah is Kasher or not, because he is not sure whether the stone is considered as if it had already been fixed or not.

(b)According to Rabah Zuti's version of the She'eilah, the Kohen performs the Avodah on a spot where the stone-slab has been removed, and the reason that we initially ascribe to Rebbi Ami for thinking that the Avodah might be Pasul is - because David ha'Melech only sanctified the actual floor of the Azarah, but not the ground underneath it.

(c)What prompts us to retract from this explanation and decide that David Hamelech certainly sanctified the floor of the Azarah together with the ground down to the center of the earth is - the fact that Rebbi Ami did not then ask the same She'eilah in a case where the entire floor of the Azarah has been removed.

(d)The She'eilah must therefore be - whether performing the Avodah with one foot on the floor and the other in a hole is considered Derech Avodah (the way one serves) or not.

4)

(a)What does the Tana Kama learn from the fact that in the Pasuk in Vayikra "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o Venasan al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach", the Torah places "be'Etzba'o" in between "Velakach" and "Venasan"?

(b)How does the Tana Kama learn this from the word "be'Etzba'o"?

(c)What does Rebbi Shimon say?

4)

(a)From the fact that in the Pasuk in Vayikra "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o Venasan al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach", the Torah places "be'Etzba'o" in between "Velakach" and "Venasan" - the Tana Kama learns that the Kohen is obligated to perform both Kabalas ha'Dam and Zerikah with his right hand.

(b)The Tana Kama learns this from the word "be'Etzba'o" - based on the principle that whenever the Torah uses the word "Etzba" it refers to the right hand (as we will learn later in the Sugya).

(c)Rebbi Shimon says that - since the Torah does not write "(be')Yad(o)" by Kabalah (only "be'Etzba'o ve'Nasan"), a Kohen who receives the blood with his left hand does not invalidate the Avodah.

5)

(a)We query Rebbi Shimon in that if he Darshens the Gezeirah-Shavah, then what difference will it make that the Torah does not write Yad by Kabalah (seeing as it writes Etzba). To which Gezeirah-Shavah does this refer?

(b)And what is then the problem if he doesn't Darshen the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

(c)What is the problem with Rav Yehudah's explanation (that Rebbi Shimon does not Darshen the Gezeirah-Shavah, and what he really means is that the Torah does not write Yad Yemanis by Kabalah)? Why will that not answer the question?

(d)In any event, Rav Yehudah's statement is incorrect, based on another Beraisa. What does Rebbi Yehudah say there about wherever the Torah writes Yad or Etzba?

5)

(a)We query Rebbi Shimon in that if he Darshens the Gezeirah-Shavah, then what difference does it make that the Torah does not write Yad by Kabalah (seeing as it writes Etzba) - with reference to the Gezeirah-Shavah 'Yad' 'Yad' and 'Etzba' 'Etzba' from Metzora (where the Torah writes "al Bohen Yado ha'Yemanis" and "Vetaval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis").

(b)Whereas if he doesn't Darshen the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' - from where will he know that even Zerikah requires the right-hand.

(c)The problem with Rav Yehudah's explanation (that Rebbi Shimon does not Darshen the Gezeirah-Shavah, and what he really means is that the Torah does not write Yad Yemanis by Kabalah) is that - the Kashya that we just asked will then remain (from where does he know that Zerikah requires the right-hand?)

(d)In any event, Rav Yehudah's statement is incorrect, based on another Beraisa, where Rebbi Yehudah specifically states - that wherever the Torah writes Yad or Etzba, it refers to the Kohen's right-hand.

6)

(a)Rava therefore explains that Rebbi Shimon in fact, holds of the Gezeirah-Shavah and that, had the Torah written Yad instead of Etzba, he would have agreed with the Tana Kama, and applied Yad both to "Velakach" and to "Venasan". What is the practical problem with applying Etzba to "Velakach"?

(b)How does Rav Sama b'rei de'Rav Ashi dismiss this problem?

(c)How does Abaye therefore explain the Machlokes?

(d)At the end of the day, does Rebbi Shimon now hold of the Gezeirah-Shavah or not.

6)

(a)Rava therefore explains that Rebbi Shimon in fact, holds of the Gezeirah-Shavah and that, had the Torah written Yad instead of Etzba, he would have agreed with the Tana Kama, and applied Yad both to "Ve'lakach" and to "Ve'nasan". The practical problem with applying Etzba to "Ve'lakach" is that - it is impossible to hold the bowl for Kabalas ha'Dam with only one finger.

(b)Rav Sama b'rei de'Rav Ashi dismisses this problem however on the grounds that - it is possible to fix a handle to the edge of the K'li, by which the Kohen can hold it even with one finger.

(c)Abaye therefore ascribes the Machlokes to the question of - whether Mikra Nidrash Lefanav u'le'Acharav (we Darshen the word ["be'Etzba'o"] forwards [to "Venasan"] and backwards (to "Velakach" [the Rabbanan]) or 'e'Acharav ve'Lo Lefanav (backwards but not forwards [Rebbi Shimon]).

(d)At the end of the day - Rebbi Shimon does in fact, hold of the Gezeirah-Shavah.

24b----------------------------------------24b

7)

(a)According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, where the Torah writes Etzba by Kabalah, it requires the Kohen's right-hand, but not by Nesinah. Which Pasuk is he referring to?

(b)What does he hold with regard to Mikra Nidrash ... ? With which of the above Tana'im does he concur?

(c)And how does he Darshen the Pasuk in Tetzaveh (in connection with the Par ha'Milu'im) "Velakachta mi'Dam Ha'Par Ve'nasata al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach be'Etzba'echa"?

(d)Why is that

7)

(a)According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, where the Torah writes 'Etzba' by Kabalah, it requires the Kohen's right-hand, but not by Nesinah. He is referring to the Pasuk that we have been discussing in this Sugya "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o Venasan".

(b)Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon holds - 'Mikra Nidrash le'Fanav ve'Lo Acharav' (neither like the Chachamim nor like his father, Rebbi Shimon).

(c)And he Darshens the Pasuk in Tetzaveh (in connection with the Par ha'Milu'im) "Velakachta mi'Dam Ha'Par Venasata al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach be'Etzba'echa" that - whereas the Kabalas ha'Dam of that Korban did not require the right-hand, the Nesinah, did ...

(d)... because he holds Mikra Nidrash Lefanav, ve'Lo Lifnei Fanav (one back but not two).

8)

(a)Based on the Pasuk "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o" and the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Vetaval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", how do we initially interpret Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan's statement Kol Makom she'Ne'emar 'Etzba u'Kehunah, Einah Ela Yemin?

(b)We query this however, from a Mishnah in Menachos. What does the Mishnah there say in connection with Kemitzah? What is now the problem?

(c)How does Rava therefore reinterpret Rebbi Yochanan's statement?

8)

(a)Based on the Pasuk "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o" and the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Vetaval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", we initially interpret Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan's statement Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Etzba u'Kehunah Einah Ela Yemin to mean that - the combination of Kohen and Etzba together denote the right hand, but not just one of them.

(b)We query this however from the Mishnah in Menachos - which disqualifies Kemitzah with the left hand, even though the Torah writes only 'Kehunah' there (and not 'Etzba').

(c)Rava therefore reinterprets Rebbi Yochanan's statement to mean that - either Etzba or Kehunah denote the right hand.

9)

(a)How does Mar interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "Vehikriv ha'Kohen es ha'Kol Vehiktir ha'Mizbeichah"? To which Avodah does this pertain?

(b)If the Kohen carried the head of the Tamid in his right hand to the Mizbe'ach, where did he carry the right hind-leg?

(c)What was noteworthy about the way he carried the latter?

(d)But did Rava not just say that wherever the Torah writes "Kehunah", it requires the right-hand?

(e)Then why does Rebbi Shimon validate Kabalah (by which the Torah writes "Vehikrivu b'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim") with the left-hand, even though Kabalah is crucial to the Avodah?

9)

(a)Mar interprets the Pasuk "Vehikriv ha'Kohen es ha'Kol Vehiktir ha'Mizbeichah" - with regard to the Avodah of carrying the limbs of the Korban Tamid to the Mizbe'ach.

(b)The Kohen carried the head of the Tamid in his right hand to the Mizbe'ach, and the right hind-leg - in his left ...

(c)... with the whole skin facing outwards, so as not to subject the people to the ugly view of the part that was cut).

(d)In spite of Rava having just said that wherever the Torah writes Kehunah it requires the right-hand - Holachas Evarim to the Mizbe'ach is not included, because it is dispensable (and Rava refers exclusively to Avodos that are crucial to the overall Avodah).

(e)Rebbi Shimon, on the other hand, validates Kabalah (by which the Torah writes "Vehikrivu B'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim") with the left-hand, even though Kabalah is crucial to the Avodah - because he requires both Kehunah and Etzba in order to obligate using the right hand.

10)

(a)If Rebbi Shimon requires both Kehunah and Etzba, how can he then say Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Yad, Eino Ela Yemin; Etzba, Eino Ela Yemin (without mentioning Kehunah)?

(b)If Etzba alone will suffice (even according to Rebbi Shimon), then why does the Torah add Kehunah?

(c)What problem do we have with the fact that Rebbi Shimon in our Mishnah only permits Kabalah with the left-hand, but says nothing about Zerikah?

(d)How does Abaye answer this Kashya?

(e)But did we not learn earlier that Rebbi Shimon requires the right-hand by the Haza'ah of a Chatas?

10)

(a)Even though Rebbi Shimon requires both Kehunah and Etzba, he nevertheless says Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Yad, Eino Ela Yemin; Etzba, Eino Ela Yemin' (without mentioning Kehunah) - because his current ruling precludes Kehunah on its own, but not Etzba on its own.

(b)Even though Etzba on its own implies the right hand (even according to Rebbi Shimon), the Torah adds Kehunah - to teach us that the Kohen is obligated to wear the Bigdei Kehunah.

(c)The problem with the fact that Rebbi Shimon in our Mishnah only permits Kabalah with the left-hand, but says nothing about Zerikah is that - like by Kabalah, the Torah only writes Kehunah by Zerikah (so why does Rebbi Shimon not validate the left-hand there too)?

(d)Abaye answers - that he mentions it in a Beraisa.

(e)To be sure, we learned earlier that Rebbi Shimon requires the right-hand by the Haza'ah of a Chatas - because the Torah writes Etzba in connection with Haza'ah (as we explained there).

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