(a)Rav Chananya bar Shalmaya and the disciples of Rav asked Rav Hamnuna the elder to go and see whether it was already dark, in which case they would have to stop eating and fix Shabbos. What did they mean by that?
(b)What did Rav Hamnuna in the name of Rav answer them ?
(c)What did Rav mean when he said 'Ke'shem she'Kova'as l'Ma'aser?
(a)When Rav Chananya bar Shalmaya and the disciples of Rav asked Rav Hamnuna the elder to go and see whether it had got dark, in which case they would have to stop eating and fix Shabbos - he meant that they would have to remove the table, and bring it in again so that it should be clear that they were eating the Se'udah in honor of Shabbos.
(b)Rav Hamnuna in the name of Rav answered them that this was not necessary, because Shabbos fixes itself (since one is anyway forbidden to eat without Kidush, covering the bread and reciting Kidush is sufficient. - Note: this appears to clash with what the Rashbam wrote on Daf 100a. that even Shmuel, who requires Perisas Mapah and Kidush, really holds like Rebbi Yosi, who does not require any break at all).
(c)'Ke'shem she'Kova'as l'Ma'aser' - means 'just like it fixes itself regarding Tevel, automatically turning crops that may be eaten Ara'i (casually) into Keva (a fixed meal, which renders them forbidden).
(a)What is the equivalent Din regarding Havdalah on Motzei Shabbos, and why is the Halachah different there?
(b)Does this mean that one may begin a meal on Motzei Shabbos before having recited Havdalah?
(a)Motzei Shabbos does not automatically fix the obligation to recite Havdalah, like the entry of Shabbos does. This is because the same honor of Shabbos that permits one to continue eating on Friday night, permits one to continue eating on Motzei Shabbos, the meal that he began on Shabbos.
(b)This only mean that one may continue eating with the meal that one already began on Shabbos (as we explained) but not that one may begin a meal on Motzei Shabbos before having recited Havdalah.
(a)If one began drinking wine (not during Shalosh Se'udos), may one continue to do so when the time for Havdalah arrives?
(b)Rav Amram quoting Rav, permitted water even l'Chatchilah without reciting Havdalah. What did Rav Huna say about that?
(c)How does Rav Amram explain Rebbi Akiva, who seems to corroborate Rav Huna's opinion? (see Tosfos)
(d)The Rabanan of Rav Ashi's Beis Hamedrash were not fussy about drinking water before Havdalah. Why were they more stringent by Kidush in this matter that by Havdalah?
(a)Someone who began drinking wine may not continue drinking once the time for Havdalah arrives - the above concession is confined to eating (Shalosh Se'udos).
(b)Rav Huna asked a man he saw drinking water before Havdalah whether he was not afraid of Askarah (croup) - the penalty for eating before Havdalah.
(c)According to Rav Amram, Rebbi Akiva (who says 'Kol ha'To'em Klum Kodem Havdalah, Misaso b'Askarah'), is not referring to water.
(d)The Rabanan of Rav Ashi's Beis Hamedrash, who were not fussy about drinking water before Havdalah, were more stringent by Kidush in this matter - because of the honor of Shabbos.
(a)They asked Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak whether someone who failed to recite Kidush on Friday night should recite it during the day. What did he reply?
(b)They then queried his reply from a Beraisa, which differentiates between Friday (and Yom-Tov) night and Shabbos (and Yom-Tov) day-time - with regards to reciting Kidush. What does the Beraisa say and what did they ask him?
(c)How does the Gemara answer the Kashya?
(d)What does the Tana say about mentioning Shabbos in Birchas ha'Mazon? Does it make a distinction between Friday night and Shabbos day-time?
(a)When they asked Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak whether someone who failed to recite Kidush on Friday night should recite it during the day. He replied that, if one can recite Havdalah during the week, one also recites Kidush on Shabbos during the day.
(b)The Beraisa differentiates between Friday (and Yom-Tov) night - when Kidush is obligatory - and Shabbos (and Yom-Tov) day, when it is not obligatory. Now if someone who forgot to recite Kidush by night, he must recite it during the day, creating a case when Shabbos and Yom-Tov day are the same as the night.
(c)The Gemara answers 'de'I Lo ka'Tani' - the Beraisa is concerned exclusively with the Din of l'Chatchilah (though it concedes that b'Di'eved, there are times when the day will have the same Din as the night).
(d)The Tana obligates the mention of both Shabbos and Yom-Tov in Birchas ha'Mazon - during the day as well as at night.
(a)If one has wine for Kidush, but limited funds for one's other Shabbos needs, which takes precedence, the Friday night meal or that of Shabbos lunch?
(b)In that case, why does the Beraisa rule that if one has only one cup of wine, he should use it for Kidush on Friday night? Would it not have been better to have left it for the day, so as to recite Kidush and honor the Shabbos meal with one stroke?
(a)If one has wine for Kidush, but limited funds for one's other Shabbos needs - Shabbos lunch takes precedence.
(b)The Beraisa nevertheless rules that if one has only one cup of wine, he should use it for Kidush on Friday night, rather than leave it for the day - because 'Chavivah Mitzvah b'Sha'tah' (a Mitzvah performed in its initial time, is more precious).
(a)If the principle of 'Chavivah Mitzvah b'Sha'atah' applies even to Berachos, then why on Motzei Shabbos, does the Tana of the Beraisa say that someone who has only one cup of wine, should postpone Havdalah until after he has eaten, rather than recite Havdalah straight away?
(b)What did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak mean when he said 'Lo Chakima Ana v'Lo Gamarna Ana, Ela Sadarna Ana'?
(a)The Tana of the Beraisa nevertheless says that someone who has only one cup of wine, should postpone Havdalah until after he has eaten, rather than recite Havdalah straightway - because whereas on Shabbos, it is a Mitzvah to bring in Shabbos as early as possible, on Motzei Shabbos it is the reverse - that it is a Mitzvah to delay the exit of Shabbos at the slightest excuse.
(b)When Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak said 'Lo Chakima Ana, v'Lo Gamarna Ana, Ela Sadarna Ana', he meant to say that he was not a sage, who said this Din of his own accord, nor was he sufficiently wise to answer the Kashya by explaining 'Chaviva Mitzvah b'Sha'tah'; nor did he learn it from his Rebbes together with the Dinim of Kidush. But that he did delve into the Halachos of Kidush and Havdalah until he had clarified the issues, and that is how he presented them to the world.
(a)Is it necessary for someone who already said Havdalah in Tefilah to repeat it over a cup of wine?
(b)This is one of the eight things that we learn from the above Beraisa (in 6a.). How do we also learn from the Beraisa that ...
1. ... Birchas ha'Mazon must be recited over a cup of wine?
2. ... the Kos shel Berachah requires a Revi'is of wine?
(c)We also learn from the Beraisa that the person who recites the Birchas ha'Mazon should drink the wine. Will the participants be Yotzei ...
1. ... if somebody else drinks it?
2. ... if nobody drinks it?
3. ... if a child drinks it?
(d)What is the meaning of ...
1. ... 'Ta'amo Pegamo'?
2. ... 'Ta'am Mavdil'?
(a)It is necessary for someone who inserted Havdalah in Tefilah to repeat it over a cup of wine.
(b)We also learn from the Beraisa that ...
1. ... Birchas ha'Mazon must be recited over a cup of wine - because otherwise, let him recite Havdalah immediately, and when he has eaten, let him say Birchas ha'Mazon without a Kos.
2. ... the Kos shel Berachah requires a Revi'is of wine - because, if it did not, why could he not use half the cup for Havdalah and half for Birchas ha'Mazon?
(c)The participants will ...
1. ... be Yotzei - if somebody else drinks it.
2. ... not be Yotzei - if nobody drinks it.
3. ... be Yotzei - if a child drinks it.
1. 'Ta'amo Pegamo' - means that if someone drank from the wine, it becomes invalidated and may no longer be used for Birchas ha'Mazon.
2. 'Ta'am Mavdil' - means that someone who ate may nevertheless recite Havdalah.
(a)We also learn from the Beraisa that one cup of wine may be used for two Berachos. How do we reconcile this with what we learned earlier (on 102b) that this is not permitted because of 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos'?
(b)The eighth point is that the author of the Beraisa must be Beis Shamai, according to the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah, who puts Ner before Besamim. Why can the author not be Rebbi Meir, who learns like that - even in Beis Hillel?
(c)What does Rava say about the two reasons 'Ta'amo Pegamo' and 'Kos shel Berachah Te'unah Shi'ur'?
(a)'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos' - applies only when one has an alternative, but not when there is none (such as this case, where he only has one cup).
(b)The author of the Beraisa which puts Ner before Besamim cannot be Rebbi Meir, whose opinion that is even according to Beis Hillel - because the Beraisa puts Birchas ha'Mazon first, whereas according to Rebbi Meir, Ner takes precedence according to both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel.
(c)Rava says that 'Ta'amo Pegamo' and 'Kos shel Berachah Te'unah Shi'ur' are one and the same - since the reason that 'Ta'amo Pegamo' (in our Sugya at least - see following question) is because less than a Shi'ur remains.
(a)Rav Yakov bar Idi was particular not to drink even from large barrels that were Pagum, Rav Idi bar Shisha only from Pagum cups. What did Mar bar Rav Ashi hold?
(a)Rav Yakov bar Idi was particular not to drink from even large barrels that were Pagum, Rav Idi bar Shisha only from Pagum cups, but he permitted barrels. Mar bar Rav Ashi was particular about drinking from small barrels that were Pagum, but not from large ones. (Note: Pagum here does not have the same connotation as Pagum in the previous question.)