(a)From where does Rebbi Yosi Hagelili learn that one is not Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Ma'aser Sheni in Yerushalayim?
(b)Rebbi Akiva holds that one is, because the Torah writes "Matzos" a number of times. What does he do with "Lechem Oni"?
(c)How does Rebbi Akiva account for the fact that we read it "Lechem Oni" (and not "Ani")?
(a)Rebbi Yosi Hagelili learns that one is not Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Ma'aser Sheni in Yerushalayim - from the Pasuk in Re'eh "Lechem Oni", from which he derives that one may only use Matzah that may be eaten by an Onan (and Ma'aser Sheni may not - from the Pasuk "Lo Achalti b'Oni Mimenah").
(b)Rebbi Akiva reads, not "Lechem Oni"- but "Lechem Ani", to preclude Matzah that was kneaded with wine, oil or honey.
(c)Rebbi Akiva learns from "Lechem Oni" - 'Lechem she'Onin Alav Devarim Harbeh' (Shmuel's Derashah - that we complete the whole Hallel as well as the Hagadah over the Matzah).
(a)Raban Gamliel holds that dough that was kneaded with wine, oil or honey should be burnt immediately. When is this speaking? On which day of Yom-Tov?
(b)What is Raban Gamliel's reason?
(c)How will Resh Lakish (who said earlier that fruit-juice does not cause dough to become Chametz) explain this Beraisa?
(d)What do the Rabanan say about dough that was kneaded with wine, oil or honey?
(a)When Raban Gamliel says that dough that was kneaded with wine, oil or honey should be burnt immediately - he must be speaking on Chol ha'Mo'ed, not on Yom-Tov, because it is forbidden to burn Chametz on Yom-Tov.
(b)The reason for this is - because in Raban Gamliel's opinion, fruit-juice causes dough to become Chametz very quickly.
(c)Resh Lakish will explain that, even though fruit-juice does not render dough, Chametz, to the extent that one is Chayav Kares for eating it, they do however, render it Chametz Nukshah (which is Asur). Consequently, it must be burned immediately.
(d)The Rabanan say that dough that was kneaded with wine, oil or honey may be eaten, because - they maintain, one can prevent it from becoming Chametz.
(a)What is 'Kituf'?
(b)The Tana Kama permits Kituf with wine, oil and honey, despite the fact that he forbids kneading the dough with them. What do the Chachamim say?
(c)Nobody argues about kneading dough with warm water. Do they hold that it is Mutar or Asur?
(a)Kituf - is the process of anointing the dough after it has been kneaded.
(b)The Chachamim say - that kneading and Kituf have the same din; wherever the one is permitted, so is the other, and wherever the one is forbidden, so is the other.
(c)Everyone agrees that kneading dough with warm water - is forbidden.
(a)Rebbi Akiva declared that he personally kneaded dough with wine, oil and honey on Pesach in the presence of Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua, and that they had not issued any protest. How do we reconcile this with the statement that he made earlier, forbidding dough that was kneaded with wine, oil and honey?
(b)This distinction is similar to that made by Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi, when he instructed his son not to knead dough with milk on the first day of Pesach, but that on subsequent days, it did not matter if he did. In light of the general prohibition of kneading dough with milk, what are the two ways of explaining Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi's instructions?
(a)Rebbi Akiva's declaration permitting the kneading of dough with wine, oil and honey on Pesach - referred to the second day (i.e. any Matzah that was not for the Matzah of Mitzvah), whereas his earlier statement forbidding it, referred to the Seder, when it may not be used, because it is Matzah Ashirah.
(b)Either we need to amend Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi, when he instructed his son not to knead dough with milk on the first day of Pesach, but that on subsequent days, it did not matter if he did - to read with honey instead of with milk; or it is speaking when he kneaded the dough for that bread in a special shape, in which case, it is permitted.
(a)What is 'Lesisah'?
(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "v'Yatzak Aleha Shamen ... v'Hevi'ah El ha'Kohen"?
(c)In that case, how do we account for the fact that kneading the dough for the flour-offerings (which was performed even by non-Kohanim) was permitted in warm water, whereas Lesisah was forbidden (even though, in both cases, they were not performed by Kohanim, and there is reason to suspect that the Minchah would become Chametz)?
(d)Then why was Lesisah performed by the Minchas ha'Omer?
(a)Lesisah is soaking the wheat in order to obtain a whiter flour.
(b)We learn from the Pasuk "v'Yatzak Aleha Shamen ... v'Hevi'ah El ha'Kohen" - that it is only from the Kemitzah (taking the fistful) and onwards that the Kohen became obligated to perform the Avodah; any process prior to that, a Yisrael was permitted to perform.
(c)The difference between the kneading and the Lesisah - is that, since the kneading had to be carried out immediately prior to the placing of the dough into the Kli Shares, in the Azarah the Kohanim there would ensure that the dough did not become Chametz; whereas the Lesisah would be performed at home, before the owner brought the flour to the Azarah, and there was a strong suspicion that the Yisrael who performed it, would allow the dough to become Chametz.
(d)Lesisah was nevertheless performed by the Minchas ha'Omer - since it was a public Korban, and as such, the people who dealt with it were members of the Beis-Din, who, like the Kohanim, were alert and careful.
(a)Rebbi Yosi Hagelili forbids Matzah of Bikurim (which can only be eaten in Yerushalayim) from the Pasuk in Ki Savo "b'Chol Moshvoseichem". From where does Rebbi Akiva initially learn it?
(b)Then why do we not also preclude Matzah made from wheat and barley (from which Bikurim can be brought) from the Hekesh of Matzah to Maror? - See Tosfos DH 'Otzi'.
(c)The Gemara however, rejects this distinction between Matzos made from Bikurim and Matzos made from wheat and barley, and proves that Rebbi Akiva himself retracted form this Derashah, and in fact, learnt like Rebbi Yosi Hagelili in this point. What does he now do with the extra "Matzos" mentioned in the Pasuk?
(d)Rebbi Akiva prefers to include Ma'aser Sheni from the extra "Matzos" and to preclude Bikurim from "b'Chol Moshvoseichem" because (unlike Bikurim) Ma'aser Sheni has a Heter b'Chol Moshvos, like Rebbi Elazar said. What did Rebbi Elazar say (Darshening the Pasuk "Ki Lo Suchal Se'eiso" - Re'eh)?
(a)Rebbi Akiva initially derives the prohibition of Matzah of Bikurim from the Hekesh of Matzah to Maror - just as there is no such thing as Maror of Bikurim (because it is not one of the seven species from which Bikurim is brought), so too, can one not be Yotzei the Mitzvah of Matzah with Matzah of Bikurim.
(b)We will not however, preclude Matzah made from wheat and barley from the Hekesh of Matzah to Maror - because of "Matzos" "Matzos" Ribah (one of the superfluous "Matzos" written in the Torah).
(c)Rebbi Akiva now uses "Matzos" "Matzos" Ribah - to permit Matzah of Ma'aser Sheni.
(d)Rebbi Elazar Darshens from the Pasuk in Re'eh "Ki Lo Suchal Se'eiso" (which he interprets to mean 'because one is unable to eat it' - besides the regular meaning of 'to carry it') - that one may even redeem Ma'aser Sheni that became Tamei in Yerushalayim, giving it a Heter of "b'Chol Moshvos" (which Bikurim does not have).
(a)Why does Rebbi Yosi Hagelili not preclude Bikurim from "Lechem Oni", in the same way as he precludes Ma'aser Sheni from there?
(b)Why does Rebbi Shimon permit an Onan to eat Bikurim?
(c)From where do the Rabanan learn that it is forbidden?
(a)Rebbi Yosi Hagelili cannot preclude Bikurim from "Lechem Oni" (in the same way as he precludes Ma'aser Sheni from there) - because he agrees with Rebbi Shimon, who says that an Onan is permitted to eat Bikurim.
(b)Rebbi Shimon permits an Onan to eat Bikurim - because the Torah refers to Bikurim as 'Terumah', which is permitted to an Onan.
(c)The Rabanan learn that it is forbidden - from the fact that the Torah compares Bikurim to Ma'aser Sheni (in the Pasuk in Re'eh "Lo Suchal Le'echol bi'She'arecha" ... ).
(a)How does Rebbi Shimon interpret the Pasuk in Ki Savo "v'Samachta b'Chol ha'Tov"?
(b)Does one bring Bikurim after Chanukah, and how do we learn that from the Pasuk "Asher Tavi me'Artzecha"?
(a)Rebbi Shimon interprets the Pasuk in Ki Savo "v'Samachta b'Chol ha'Tov" - to refer, not to the obligation to be happy when bringing Bikurim, but that one is obligated to bring them and to read the Parshah, at the time of Simchah (i.e. between Shavu'os until Succos because that is the time when the crops are being picked - but not after Succos).
(b)One nevertheless brings Bikurim (without reading the Parshah) from Succos until Chanukah, because there are still crops in the field to bring, and the Torah writes "Asher Tavi me'Artzecha" (and until then it is still 'Zman Havah'ah').
(a)Tanu Rabanan: "Lechem Oni", 'Prat l'Chalut va'Ashishah'. What are 'Chalut' and 'Ashishah'?
(b)So from where do we know that one is not obligated to use Matzah made of coarse flour?
(c)How does the Gemara prove that 'Ashishah' must be something important?
(d)How does Shmuel interpret the 'Ashishah' in the Pasuk in Shmuel?
(a)'Chalut va'Ashishah' - are a Matzah made in boiling water and a very large Matzah, respectively. Why Chalut is called 'Lechem' at all - see Tosfos DH 'Prat'.
(b)One is nevertheless not obligated to use Matzah made of coarse flour because of "Matzos" "Matzos" Ribah - to include even Matzos like those used by Shlomo Hamelech.
(c)'Ashishah' must be something important, says the Gemara - from the Pasuk in Shmuel "Vayechalek l'Chol ha'Am ... va'Ashishah Echad mi'Shishah b'Eifah" (= 3 Sa'ah = 72 egg-volumes).
(d)Shmuel interprets the 'Ashishah' there to mean an Eifah of wine.