Why does the Pasuk switch the order here from the first Luchos, to place 'Ishah' before 'Bayis'?
Ramban (on Pasuk 17): Because the Yeitzer ha'Ra for women is the strongest Yeitzer ha'Ra that there is. 1
The question remains however, why in Yisro, the Torah mentions Bayis first?
Why does the Torah insert "Lo Sis'aveh", which it omitted in Yisro?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum: "Lo Sis'aveh" is synonymous with "Lo Sachmod". 1
Ramban (13:9): It comes to include a prohibition against desiring to steal someone else's object, even if one does nothing about it. 2
Refer to Sh'mos, 20:14:151:1.
See Oznayim la'Torah, who, after citing the various opinions, concludes that the Torah inserts "Lo Sis'aveh" here, since they were about to enter Eretz Yisrael and indulge in acquiring possessions, 3 where "Lo Sis'aveh" would become more prominent.
Rashi: As is evident from Onkelos (and Yonasan) who translate it as 've'Lo Seirog, in the same way as they translates "Nechmad le'Mar'eh" (in Bereishis, 2:9) as 'di'Merageg Lemechzei'. It is not clear however, why the Torah sees fit to insert it?
Ramban: Either because the owner is stronger than him or because he is afraid of being caught by the law-enforcement officers. The Rambam in Seifer ha'Mitzvos, Lo Sa'aseh 265 rules that "Lo Sachmod" only applies if one does something to try and obtain the object in a devious way, even if he pays its value. However he agrees with the Ramban that "Lo Sis'aveh" is a separate La'av.
Why does the Torah add "Sadeihu"?
