What are the connotations of the phrase "Ve'asisa Olosecha ha'Basar ve'ha'Dam"?
Zevachim, 88b: It teaches us that only the flesh and the blood of Korbanos go on the Mizbe'ach, and that conequently, in the event that the hair on the head of lambs or the beard of goats of Olos, or the bones, sinews, horns or hooves that have becomes detached, 1 they must be taken down from the Mizbe'ach.
Pesachim, 77a #1: It implies that 'If there is no Basar there is no Dam and if there is no Dam there is no Basar', and that consequently, if the Basar becomes Pasul 2 the Kohen does not sprinkle the blood and if the blood becomes Pasul, the entire Korban becomes Pasul too.
Pesachim, 77a #2: The Torah compares the Basar to the Dam, to teach us that, just as the blood is sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach, so too, must the Basar be thrown on to the Ma'arachah - to which end there was a slight space between the ramp and the Mizbe'ach. 3
How does "ve'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech ... " correlate with the first half of the Pasuk?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: If the Korban is an Olah, place the Basar and the Dam on the Mizbe'ach; whereas if it is a Shelamim, first pour the blood on the Mizbe'ach, and then eat the Basar.
What are the implications of the words "Ve'asisa Olosecha ha'Basar ve'ha'Dam al Mizbach Hashem Elokecha"?
Rashi (in Yisro, Sh'mos, 20:21): It implies that, although the Basar and the Dam go on the Mizbe'ach, the Shechitah must be performed next to it. 1
Rashi (Ibid.): And not on it as is also implied there. See also Torah Temimah, note 104.
What are the ramifications of "ve'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech ... "?
Zevachim, 36b #1: It implies that, Bedi'eved one Matanah on the Mizbe'ach will suffice (even where Lechatchilah two or four are required). 1
Zevachim, 36a #2: It implies that all Korbanos require Matanos to be placed on the Mizbe'ach - even Ma'aser Beheimah and Pesach, which are not mentioned specifically.
Yerushalmi Pesachim, 5:6: It implies that the blood of B'chor, Pesach and Ma'aser Beheimah must be poured on the Mizbe'ach, not dripped, tipped or sprinkled. 2
What are the implications of "ve'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech ... ve'ha'Basar Tochel"?
Rashi: It implies that one may only eat the Basar of a Korban after its blood has been sprinkled.
What are the connotations of "ve'ha'Basar Tochel"?
Rashi (in B'rachos, 48b): It teaches us that it is a Mitzvah to eat the meat of Korbanos. 1
Pesachim, 77b: The juxtaposition of "ve'ha'Basar Tochel" to "ve'Dam Zevacha Yishacfech" teaches us that 'If there is no Dam there is no Basar and if there is no Basar there is no Dam' 2 .
Rashi: Which therefore requires a special B'rachah before one eats them, as implied in Shmuel 1, 9:13. Refer also to Vayikra, 7:19:2:1.
Who eats the Korban Shelamim?
