Why does the Torah introduce the B'rachos with the word "Es ha'Berachah" and the K'lalos with a 'Vav' - "ve'ha'Kelalah"?
Ba'al ha'Turim (on Pasuk 27, citing the Midrash Tanchuma) #1: Because "Es" implies a Ribuy (an inclusion) - to teach us that (as opposed to the K'lalos) not one of the B'rachos ever failed to materialize.
Ba'al ha'Turim (on Pasuk 27, citing the Midrash Tanchuma) #2: Because Hashem fulfilled the B'rachos from 'Alef' until 'Saf'
Ba'al ha'Turim: In similar vein, the B'rachos in Bechukosai Hashem fulfilled from 'Alef' (of' "Es) ha'Berachah"
Why does the Torah write only "Asher Tishm'u" in connection with the B'rachah, whereas in connection with the Kelalah it writes "Im Lo Sishme'u"?
Ba'al ha'Turim #1: Judging favorably, the Torah ascribes Yisrael listening to Hashem as being certain, and their sinning as only a Safek.
Ba'al ha'Turim #2: The term "Asher" also has connotations of 'Ashrei' - praiseworthy, as if to say 'How praiseworthy is the one who follows Hashem's instructions'. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, once a person undertakes to perform a Mitzvah, it is considered as if he has performed it - even though he did not actually manage to do so; whereas regarding an Aveirah, he is not considered as having committed it until he sctually comits it.
Ba'al ha'Turim: As the Pasuk writes in Mishlei, 8:34. See also Torah Temimah, note 66.
Having written "Vesartem min ha'Derech", why does the Torah add "Laleches Acharei Elohim Acherim"?
Rashi: To teach us that whoever worships idols has deviated from the path that Yisrael were ordered to follow
Riva: But Rashi himself wrote in Sh'lach L'cha Bamidbar, 15:23 - that we learn this from the Pasuk there "es Kol asher Tzivah Hashem"? See Torah Temmah, note 66.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes in Toldos Bereishis, 27:29 that Yitzchak put the curse before the blessing whereas Bil'am in Balak Bamidbar, 24:9 put the B'rachah first, because Tzadikim first suffer and enjoy tranquility at the end, whereas with the Resha'im, it is the opposite. Similarly, Bereishis Rabah 66:4 explains that Yitzchak loved Yisrael, therefore he concluded with a Brachah, whereas Bil'am concluded with a curse. Then why here does the Torah write "ha'Berachah ve'ha'Kelalah", and why will the Brachos on Har Gerizim precede the Kelalos on Har Eival?
Refer to Bereishis 27:29:5:3-4 & 27:29:152:1-4 and notes.
