Seeing as the splitting of the Sea was in order to punish the Egyptians, why did Moshe say "Hashem (Midas Rachamim) Yilachem Lachem", and not 'Elokim']?
R. Bachye: Because the Midas Rachamim Hashem attached Midas Rachamim to Midas ha'Din 1 ? as a result of which the Egyptians merited burial. 2
R. Bachye: And we find the same concept regarding Gog and Magog in the time of Mashi'ach. See Zecharyah 14:3 and Yechezkel 39:11.
What did Moshe mean when he instructed Yisrael to be silent?
Rashi (to Shir ha'Shirim 1:9): He meant that they should stop Davening. 1
Targum Yonasan: Refer to 14:13:1:1 , regarding the fourth group.
And begin moving forward, as the following Pasuk states (14:15).
How will we reconcile this Pasuk (Hashem asking Yisrael not to participate in the battle against the Egyptians) with the principle 'Ein Somechin Al ha'Neis'?
R. Bachye #1: That does not apply to the Egyptians who, after having witnessed Hashem killing their firstborn, still pursued Yisrael, were fighting, not against Yisrael, but against Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu Himself, therefore the battle belonged to Him.
R. Bachye #2: Because, since Yisrael also worshipped idols in Egypt and grew long hair ('B'luris' - in the way that the idolatoue priests used to do) they were best-served to be silent; otherwise the Midas ha'Din would turn on to them too.
It is indeed the exception to the rule. 1
See Meshech Chochmah. I once heard that the Pasuk can also be translated as'Hashem will give you bread, but you must plow' - in keeping with the principle 'Ein Somchin al ha'Neis'.
Bearing in mind the obligation to offer the enemy peace-terms before going into battle, why did Hashem not offer peace-terms to the Egyptians?
