1)

(a)How does Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai learns that "Ayin Tachas Ayin" must mean Mamon, from the case of a blind man who blinded his friend or a lame one who made him lame?

(b)On what grounds do we reject Rebbi Shimon's proof?

(c)How do we support our argument from a Tereifah who murdered somebody?

(d)Why can a Tereifah not be sentenced to death?

1)

(a)Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai learns that "Ayin Tachas Ayin" must mean Mamon because otherwise, it would not be possible to punish a blind man who blinded his friend or a lame one who made him lame. And by punishing some people and not others, we would be contravening the Pasuk "Torah Achas Yihyeh Lachem".

(b)We reject Rebbi Shimon's proof however, on the grounds that not punishing someone in a certain way because it is not possible cannot be construed as a contravention of "Torah Achas ... " ...

(c)... any more than the case of a Tereifah who murdered somebody and who cannot be sentenced to death ...

(d)... because the witnesses, who testify about a man who, to all intents and purposes, is already dead, cannot become Eidim Zomemin (and any witnesses who cannot become Zomemin are not eligible to testify).

2)

(a)How does de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learn 'Mamon' from the Pasuk in Emor "Kein Yinasen Bo"?

(b)How do we reconcile this with the fact that (in the previous phrase, ("Ka'asher Yiten Mum ba'Adam") "Yiten" certainly does not mean Mamon?

(c)Then why does the Torah write "Yiten" there?

2)

(a)de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learns 'Mamon' from the Pasuk in Emor "Kein Yinasen Bo" since "Yinasen" implies Mamon rather than wounding.

(b)We reconcile this with the fact that (in the previous phrase, ("Ka'asher Yiten Mum ba'Adam") "Yiten" certainly does not mean Mamon by pointing that although "Yiten" S'tam can also pertain to wounding, here where it is superfluous (since the Torah just wrote "Kasher Yiten Mum ba'Amiso, Ka'asher Asah Kein Ye'aseh Lo") we Darshen it according to its more common meaning.

(c)And the Torah only writes "Ka'asher Yiten Mum ba'Adam", because it needed to write "Kein Yinasen Bo".

3)

(a)What does de'Bei Rebbi Chiya learn from the Pasuk there (in connection with Eid Zomem) "Yad be'Yad"?

(b)Seeing as "Regel be'Ragel" cannot be explained in the same way, on what grounds do we Darshen "Yad be'Yad" like that?

(c)Then why does the Torah write "Regel be'Ragel"?

3)

(a)de'Bei Rebbi Chiya learns from the Pasuk there (in connection with Eid Zomem) "Yad be'Yad" 'Davar ha'Niten mi'Yad le'Yad', (meaning that they only pay Mamon, rather than have their hands cut off).

(b)Despite the fact that "Regel be'Ragel" cannot be explained in the same way, we nevertheless Darshen "Yad be'Yad" like this because, having already written "va'Asisem Lo Ka'asher Zamam La'asos le'Achiv", the entire phrase is superfluous ...

(c)... and the Torah only writes "Regel be'Ragel" to balance with "Yad be'Yad".

4)

(a)Abaye learns 'Mamon' from Tana de'Bei Chizkiyah. What does Tana de'Bei Chizkiyah extrapolate from "Ayin Tachas Ayin, Nefesh Tachas Nefesh"?

(b)We reject Abaye's proof too, supporting our point from the Mishnah in Makos. What does the Mishnah there say with regard to assessing someone for Malkos?

(c)What does this prove?

4)

(a)Abaye learns 'Mamon' from Tana de'Bei Chizkiyah, who Darshens from "Ayin Tachas Ayin, Nefesh Tachas Nefesh" ve'Lo Ayin ve'Nefesh Tachas Ayin'. And if one were to interpret "Ayin Tachas Ayin" literally, the possibility exists that the Mazik might die whilst his eye is being removed (which would constitute 'Ayin ve'Nefesh Tachas Nefesh').

(b)We reject Abaye's proof too, supporting our point from the Mishnah in Makos, which states that as long as Beis-Din assessed someone for Malkos, if, in spite of that assessment, he died whilst Malkos was being administered, they are Patur (because they did their duty).

(c)By the same token, if, in our case, before removing the Mazik's eye, they assessed that the culprit could survive, and despite that assessment, he died, they would be Patur, too.

5)

(a)Rav Zvid in the name of Rava learns 'Mamon' from the Derashah of "Petza Tachas Patza", and Rav Papa in the name of Rava learns it from the Derashah of "ve'Rapo Yerapei". Which two Derashos do we learn from these two Pesukim, respectfully?

(b)How do Rav Zvid and Rav Papa now learn 'Mamon' from there?

(c)And how do we reject their respective proofs?

5)

(a)Rav Z'vid in the name of Rava learns 'Mamon' from the Derashah of "Petza Tachas Patza", and Rav Papa in the name of Rava learns it from the Derashah of "ve'Rapo Yerapei". The two respective Derashos that we learn from these two Pesukim are that the Mazik must pay for the pain (Tza'ar) and for the doctor's fees (Ripuy), even when there is Nezek, too.

(b)Rav Z'vid and Rav Papa learn 'Mamon' from there because if the Mazik's was sentenced to have his limb removed, then why would we need a Pasuk to obligate the Mazik Tza'ar and Ripuy, seeing as he would automatically experience pain and require medical attention, just as the Nizak did.

(c)We reject their respective proofs however by establishing the Pasuk of Tza'ar and Ripuy by a Mazik who did not suffer the same degree of Tza'ar or need the same medical attention as the Nizak, and the Pasuk comes to obligate the Mazik to pay the difference.

6)

(a)The last proof for 'Mamon' is that of Rav Ashi, who initially learns from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Ayin Tachas Ayin", "Shalem Yeshalem Shor Tachas ha'Shor" (that just as the latter Pasuk refers to Mamon, so too, does the former). We query this however, on the grounds that it would be more likely to derive the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from Adam. To which Pasuk does this refer?

(b)Why might we nevertheless prefer to learn the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from the Pasuk by Shor?

(c)Due to the doubt from which "Tachas" to learn it, Rav Ashi switches to a Pasuk ("Tachas") in Ki Seitzei. Which Pasuk is that?

(d)What is the advantage of learning it from there?

6)

(a)The last proof for 'Mamon' is that of Rav Ashi. who initially learns from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Ayin Tachas Ayin", "Shalem Yeshalem Shor Tachas ha'Shor" (that just as the latter Pasuk refers to Mamon, so too, the former). We query this however, on the grounds that it would be more likely to derive the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from Adam from the Pasuk "ve'Nasasta Nefesh Tachas Nafesh", which refers literally to Misah (in which case "Ayin Tachas Ayin" will be taken literally too, to mean a limb for a limb).

(b)We might nevertheless prefer to learn the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from the Pasuk by Shor in order to learn Nizakin from Nizakin (as we learned on the previous Daf).

(c)Due to the doubt from which "Tachas" to learn it, Rav Ashi switches to the Pasuk ("Tachas") in Ki Seitzei "Tachas Asher Inah" (in connection with a case of rape) ...

(d)... which refers to both Adam and Mamon.

7)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer states in a Beraisa "Ayin Tachas Ayin" Mamash. What is obviously wrong with this statement?

(b)Rabah explains Rebbi Eliezer to mean that the Mazik is not assessed like an Eved. What does Abaye ask on this?

(c)So how does Rav Ashi explain Rebbi Eliezer?

7)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer states in a Beraisa "Ayin Tachas Ayin" Mamash. This cannot be correct in view of all the Derashos that we have just cited, proving that "Ayin Tachas Ayin" must mean Mamon.

(b)Rabah explains Rebbi Eliezer to mean that the Mazik is not assessed like an Eved, which Abaye queries on the grounds that if that were so, how would he be assessed, seeing as a ben Chorin does not have a value.

(c)So Rav Ashi explains that what Rebbi Eliezer really means is that we assess not the Nizak, but the Mazik (which explains the word 'Mamash' used by him [since it resembles paying for the Nizak's eye with his own]).

8)

(a)What did Rav Papa bar Shmuel rule when the case of a child whose hand had been bitten off by a donkey was brought before him?

(b)He explained to Rava that he meant four besides Nezek. What did he tell Abaye when he pointed out that the damage had been done by a donkey (and not by a human)?

(c)And what did he rule when the father refused to assess him like an Eved because he considered it undignified?

(d)And what did the father have to say to that?

8)

(a)When the case of a child whose hand had been bitten off by a donkey was brought before Rav Papa bar Shmuel, he ruled that he had to pay four things (see Tosfos DH 'Ziylu').

(b)He explained to Rava that he meant four things besides Nezek. When Abaye pointed out that the damage had been done by a donkey (and not by a human) he told him to assess him like an Eved (though initially, he omitted to add 'like an Eved').

(c)When the father refused to assess him like an Eved because he considered it undignified Rav Papa informed him that he had no right to forego his son's rights, on the basis of his personal feelings.

(d)To which the father replied that he would appease his son when he grew up.

9)

(a)When the case of the child whose hand had been chewed by an ox came before Rava, he ruled that they should assess the child like an Eved. They queried him however, on the basis of another ruling of his. What did he say with regard to anyone who needs to be assessed like an Eved?

(b)How did Rava reconcile his current ruling with his previous one?

(c)Rava's latter statement tallies with another ruling of his. What did he say with regard to the damage done to ...

1. ... an ox by an ox or to an ox by a human?

2. ... a human by a human or to a human by an ox?

(d)Why can the reason of the latter ruling not be ascribed to the fact that the Torah uses the word "Elohim" ("Ad ha'Elohim Yavo Davar Sheneihem" [which in this context, means 'expert judges'])?

9)

(a)When the case of the child whose hand had been chewed by an ox came before Rava, he ruled that they should assess the child like an Eved. They queried him however, on the basis of another ruling of his that anyone who needs to be assessed like an Eved cannot claim his due in Bavel.

(b)Rava reconciled his current ruling with his previous one by establishing the assessment (not in order to claim, but) in anticipation of the Nizak seizing it without asking Beis-Din (in which case, he would be permitted to keep it).

(c)Rava's latter statement tallies with another ruling of his, that the damage done to ...

1. ... an ox by an ox or to an ox by a human may be claimed in Bavel.

2. ... a human by a human or to a human by an ox may not.

(d)The reason of the latter ruling cannot be ascribed to the fact that the Torah uses the word "Elohim" ("Ad ha'Elohim Yavo D'var Sheneihem" [which in this context, means 'expert judges']) because in that case, the two cases in the former ruling are contained in that Parshah, too.

84b----------------------------------------84b

10)

(a)Why do we assume that there are no expert judges in Bavel? What is the definition of an expert judge?

(b)We suggest that 'the damage done to an ox by an ox and to an ox by a human' is Chayav because of 'Shelichusaihu ka'Avdinan' like by Hoda'os and Halva'os'. What does this mean? What are 'Hoda'os and Halva'os'?

(c)We think at this stage that the reason that 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox' is Patur in Bavel is because the amount needs to be assessed. On what grounds do we refute it ...

1. ... even assuming that it does?

2. ... even if the assessment would be a problem?

(d)Neither can the criterion be solely the fact that we do not judge Kenasos in Bavel. Why not?

(e)And we also refute the suggestion that whatever is uncommon, is not judged in Bavel, on the basis of Rav Papa. What did Rav Papa rule when a case involving Boshes came before him?

10)

(a)We assume that there are no expert judges in Bavel because the definition of an expert judge is one with Semichah, and there is no Semichah in Bavel.

(b)We suggest that 'the damage done to an ox by an ox and to an ox by a human' is Chayav because of 'Shelichusaihu ka'Avdinan' like by Hoda'os and Halva'os' (where two witnesses testify that Reuven admits that he owes Shimon money or where there are two witnesses to that effect, respectively), where Beis-Din in Bavel will issue a ruling even though they do not have Semichah, because they are doing the job of Semuchim.

(c)We think at this stage that the reason that 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox' is Patur in Bavel is because the amount needs to be assessed. We refute this explanation however ...

1. ... even assuming that it does because in the former case, as well as in the latter, it is easy to go and find out the market value of the Nizak in the market (so that the initial lack of knowledge of his value is not really a criterion at all).

2. ... even if the assessment would be a problem because how would we then explain the fact that the payment of Kefel and Daled ve'Hey is not enforced in Bavel (even though the amount would not require assessment)?

(d)Neither is the criterion solely the fact that we do not judge Kenasos in Bavel because 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox' is not a Knas.

(e)And we also refute the suggestion that whatever is uncommon, is not judged in Bavel, on the basis of Rav Papa. When Rav Papa was confronted with a case involving Boshes he ordered the Mazik to pay four hundred Zuz.

11)

(a)Rav Papa is proved wrong however, from a statement of Rav Nachman. What did Rav Nachman send to Rav Chisda, when he consulted him about how much Boshes to pay in a certain case that came before him (in the third Perek)?

(b)We finally conclude that we only claim in Bavel cases (of Mamon, but not of Knas) on two conditions. Which two condition?

(c)How does that explain why, in Bavel, we do not claim ...

1. ... 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox'?

2. ... Boshes?

(d)When Rava said that a Shor that damaged in Bavel is not subject to claim, how do we know that he meant 'Shor de'Azik Shor'?

11)

(a)Rav Papa is proved wrong however, from a statement of Rav Nachman. When Rav Chisda consulted Rav Nachman about a how much Boshes to pay in a certain case that came before him the latter retorted 'Chisda Chisda, K'nasa ka'Magbis be'Bavel' (as we learned in the third Perek).

(b)We finally conclude that we only claim in Bavel cases of Mamon (not of Knas) on two conditions a. that they are common and b. that they involve a real loss of pocket.

(c)Consequently we do not claim in Bavel...

1. ... 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox' since it is uncommon.

2. ... Boshes since it does not involve a real loss of pocket.

(d)When Rava said that a Shor that damaged in Bavel is not subject to claim, we know that he meant 'Shor de'Azik Shor' because if he was referring to Shor de'Azik Adam, why did he say specifically 'Shor de'Azik', seeing as even Adam de'Azik Adam does not apply in Bavel either?

12)

(a)How do we reconcile this statement of Rava with his previous statement (that Shor de'Azik Shor does pay in Bavel)?

(b)Rava also said that there is no such thing as a Mu'ad in Bavel. Why not?

(c)To explain the discrepancy that on the one hand, there is no such thing as a Shor Mu'ad in Bavel, and on the other, Rava speaks about claiming from a Mu'ad in Bavel, we try to establish the case of a Mu'ad in Bavel when either the Mu'ad ox or the Beis-Din of Semuchin was brought from Eretz Yisrael to Bavel. On what basis do we reject both suggestions?

(d)So what is the case of an ox that is a Mu'ad in Bavel to which Rava referred?

12)

(a)We reconcile this statement of Rava with his previous statement (that Shor de'Azik Shor does pay in Bavel) by establishing the earlier ruling by a Shor Mu'ad that damaged, whereas the current case pertains to a Tam (which is a Knas).

(b)Rava also said that there is no such thing as a Mu'ad in Bavel because seeing as a Shor Tam that damages is not judged, how can the animal ever become a Mu'ad?

(c)To explain the discrepancy that on the one hand, there is no such thing as a Shor Mu'ad in Bavel, and on the other, Rava speaks about claiming from a Mu'ad in Bavel, we try to establish the case of a Mu'ad in Bavel when either the Mu'ad ox or the Beis-Din of Semuchin was brought from Eretz Yisrael to Bavel. We reject both suggestions however, due to the fact neither of them is common, and we have already learned that whatever is uncommon, cannot be claimed in Bavel.

(d)The case of an ox that is a Mu'ad in Bavel to which Rava referred must therefore be that of Shein ve'Regel (which did not become a Mu'ad, but was a Mu'ad all the time).

13)

(a)Rebbi argues with ben Azai in a Beraisa. Assuming that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn without a real wound, what does ...

1. ... he mean when he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

2. ... ben Azai (who interprets ''Kevi'ah'' to mean a burn with a wound) then mean when he says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

(b)This is the opinion of Rava. According to Rava, who is therefore the author of our Mishnah?

(c)Rav Papa refutes Rava's explanation with the words 'Ipcha Mistavra'. What does he mean by that?

(d)According to Rav Papa therefore, based on the fact that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn with a wound, what does ...

1. ... he now mean when he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

2. ... ben Azai mean when he says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

(e)Who is now the author of our Mishnah, according to Rav Papa?

13)

(a)Rebbi argues with ben Azai in a Beraisa. Assuming that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn without a wound, when ...

1. ... he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah', he means that Kevi'ah on its own implies even a burn without a wound. Consequently, when the Torah adds Chaburah', it means to indicate that the Torah is speaking here about a burn with a wound.

2. ... ben Azai (who interprets ''Kevi'ah'' to mean a burn with a wound) says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah', he means that "Chaburah" comes to indicate that "Kevi'ah" here means a burn without a wound.

(b)This is the opinion of Rava, according to whom the author of our Mishnah (which obligates the Mazik to pay for pain without a wound) must be ben Azai.

(c)Rav Papa refutes Rava's explanation with the words 'Ipcha Mistavra' meaning that it would be more logical to explain their respective statements to fit their final opinions than to the initial meaning of the word "Kevi'ah", as Rava explained.

(d)According to Rav Papa therefore, based on the fact that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn with a wound ...

1. ... when he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah', he means that seeing as the Torah begins with "Kevi'ah", implying a burn with a wound, "Chaburah" comes to indicate that in this case, it comes to include a burn without a wound.

2. ... when ben Azai says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah', he means that, seeing as "Kevi'ah" implies even a burn without a wound, "Chaburah" (which is not superfluous), must come to indicate that here, one is only Chayav for a burn with a wound.

(e)According to Rav Papa, the author of our Mishnah is Rebbi.

14)

(a)Alternatively, according to both opinions, Kevi'ah could mean either a burn with a wound or a burn without one, and they argue over a 'Klal u'Perat' which are not placed next to each other. What is the Klal in this case, and what is the Prat?

(b)What would we Darshen if they were placed next to each other?

(c)ben Azai considers them as if they were placed next to each other, and the burn must incorporate a real wound. What do the Rabanan say?

(d)According to Rebbi, why does the Torah need to write "Chaburah?

14)

(a)Alternatively, according to both opinions, Kevi'ah could mean either a burn with a wound or a burn without one, and they argue over a 'K'lal u'P'rat' which are not placed next to each other. The K'lal in this case, is "Kevi'ah", and the P'rat, "Chaburah".

(b)If they were placed next to each other we would consider them a regular 'K'lal u'P'rat', and based on the principle 'Ein bi'Ch'lal Ela Mah she'bi'P'rat', we would require a burn with a wound.

(c)ben Azai considers them as if they were together, and the burn must incorporate a real wound. The Rabbanan say that this cannot be considered a 'K'lal u'P'rat u'Ch'lal', in which case "Kevi'ah" means a burn without a wound, and "Chaburah" a burn with one.

(d)According to Rebbi, the Torah needs to write "Chaburah to teach us that even where there is a wound, the Mazik still pays for the pain (and we do not apply the principle 'Mishum Rish'ah Achas Atah Mechayvo ... ').

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