1)

Why does the Torah add the 'Vav' in "Va'Sh-m"?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing Midrash): Wherever the Torah writes 1 "Va'Sh-m," 2 it means HaSh-m and His Beis-Din. 3

2.

Rashbam and Ramban #2 (citing Midrash) 4 : It refers to Gavriel, acting in the name of HaSh-m.

3.

Ramban #3 (citing Midrash): It refers to HaSh-m, and it is the Torah's way to speak like this.


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

Riva, citing Chizkuni, asks - a) It says "Va'Sh-m Shamayim Asah" (before angels were created)"! Rashi discusses when it says so about punishment. Or, HaSh-m joined Midas ha'Rachamim to Midas ha'Din, like Rashi said. b) It says "Va'Sh-m Pakad Es Sarah"! Because Pharaoh took her and she was not defiled, the Beis Din ruled that it is proper that she give birth - "v'Im Lo Nitme'ah..." c) It says about Makas Bechoros "Va'Sh-m," and it was "I, and not an angel"! This means that HaSh-m would not rely on an angel alone. Rashi said that also Makas Bechoros was with His Beis Din. Hadar Zekenim says that the HaSh-m and His Beis Din struck them; HaSh-m alone passed through Egypt.

3

This suggests that the decision to destroy Sedom was unanimous, and that not a single member of HaSh-m's Heavenly Court had anything to say in their defense.

4

The Rashbam consistently equates statements made by HaSh-m according to the verses, with messages conveyed by His angels (refer to 18:20:1:4*).

2)

To whom does "me'Es HaSh-m" refer?

1.

Rashi: It refers to HaSh-m, as if the Torah had written "me'Ito" (from Him). 1

2.

Rashbam and Ramban (citing the Midrash): It refers to the Shechinah Itself. 2


1

See Ramban who asks that Rashi contradicts Himself from what he wrote above. Refer to 19:24:0.1:1.

2

And the beginning of the Pasuk refers to Gavri'el; refer to 19:24:1:2.

3)

Why does the Torah write that HaSh-m rained sulfur and fire, seeing as rain, on the one hand, and sulfur and fire on the other, are two different entities?

1.

Rashi and Targum Yonasan: HaSh-m in His mercy, first sent down rain of blessing, to give the people a chance to do Teshuvah; and it is only when they didn't, 1 that the rain turned into sulfur and fire. 2


1

Because they refused to believe that HaSh-m was even aware of their evil deeds (Targum Yonasan).

2

Also refer to 7:12:2:1.

4)

"Himtir" implies from the sky. Why does it mention "Min ha'Shamayim"?

1.

Hadar Zekenim: We learn that HaSh-m punishes Resha'im from Shamayim, and bestows good to Tzadikim from Shamayim (e.g. Manna). A parable for Shamayim is an oven. One punishes his enemy from a hot spit from the oven, and feeds to his beloved hot bread from the oven.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

5)

Rashi writes: "Va'Sh-m - This always means HaSh-m and His [heavenly] court." But we do not always interpret this way (for instance in 18:17 above)?

1.

Gur Aryeh: Our verse could have written "va'Yamter HaSh-m" as a continuation of the narrative; the conjunctive "Vav" needs explanation. In 18:17, however, we need the letter "Vav" to reconnect the verse to the topic at the beginning of that chapter. 1


1

I.e. HaSh-m had visited Avraham (18:1), and then waited while he attended to the guests. In verse 18:17, HaSh-m resumed His appearance to Avraham and informed him about the destruction of Sedom.

6)

Rashi writes: "This means HaSh-m and His [heavenly] court." This implies that HaSh-m Himself rained [down upon Sedom], accompanied secondarily by the angels. But we learned that it was the angel (who had visited Lot) who was charged with destroying Sedom!

1.

Gur Aryeh (to Shemos 12:29): First, HaSh-m Himself brought the rain of sulfur and fire; afterwards, the ultimate overturning of the cities was though an angel.

7)

Rashi writes: "'Had rained upon Sedom' (Himtir) - [Already] at dawn; as the verse said above (19:15)." But what happened at dawn was that Lot finally left Sedom; and he only arrived at Tzo'ar at sunrise (19:23). Hadn't the angel told him, "I cannot do a thing until you arrive there (19:22)?!

1.

Gur Aryeh: The derivation is from the verb "Himtir" rather than 'Hayah Mamtir.' The past perfect tense indicates that HaSh-m had already done so. The final overturning of the cities was delayed until after Lot arrived in Tzo'ar. 1


1

Also reference what Gur Aryeh wrote above (refer to 19:24:1.2) - The overturning of the cities was assigned to the angel, who had been forced to wait for Lot; but the raining of sulfur and fire was done by HaSh-m (with His court), and He did not need to wait. (CS)

8)

Rashi writes: "At dawn... the hour that both the sun and moon stand in the sky." But the moon is visible even after dawn?

1.

Gur Aryeh: By day, even if the moon is visible, it does not dominate (lit. 'rule;' cf. Bereishis 1:16) the sky at that hour, for its light is insignificant by contrast. At dawn, however, both the sun and moon 1 "dominate" the sky. 2


1

Riva (to 19:15): Sedom's destruction took place on Pesach (Rashi to 19:3). At the full moon (and thereafter), the moon is still visible at sunrise.

2

Gur Aryeh: This is reflected in Halachah as well; between dawn and sunrise one may recite Shema for either its morning recitation, or for the evening before, and still fulfill the Mitzvah (see Shulchan Aruch OC 58: 4-5).

9)

Rashi writes: "'Rained... sulfur and fire' - Rain at the outset; and then it became sulfur and fire." Why interpret in this way? We do find the term 'rain' used for substances other than water (e.g. Shemos16:4).

1.

Gur Aryeh: The derivation is from the extra phrase, "from HaSh-m." It would be inappropriate to associate punishment as from HaSh-m [directly]. At the beginning it was normal rain; only if they still did not do Teshuvah would He turn it to sulfur. 1


1

But see Maharal (Nesivos Olam, Gemilus Chasadim Ch. 5, p. 164), where he writes that unlike the generation of the Flood, Sedom was not given this final chance to do Teshuvah. (CS)

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