1)

(a)Rava cites the source of Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar, who learns that one may perform Milah on an Eved against his wishes, as the Pasuk in Bo "Kol Eved Ish Miknas Kesef u'Malta Oso, Oz Yochal Bo" (with reference to the Korban Pesach). How does he learn it from there (from the extra "Ish")?

(b)What problem do we have with "Eved Ish" that pushes the Tana to learn like that?

(c)How would he have explained the Pasuk had it not inserted the word "Ish"?

(d)The Rabanan, who maintain that an Eved Ish, like a ben Ish, cannot be circumcised against his will, explain the Pasuk "Kol Eved Ish ... " like Shmuel. How does Shmuel explain it?

1)

(a)Rava cites the source of Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar, who learns that one may perform Milah on an Eved against his wishes, as the Pasuk in Bo "Kol Eved Ish Miknas Kesef u'Malta Oso, Oz Yochal Bo" (with reference to the Korban Pesach). He learns from the words "Eved Ish" - that one may circumcise an Eved who is an Ish against his will, but not a son who is an Ish (i.e. the grown-up son whose father is converting) against his will.

(b)The problem with "Eved Ish" that pushes the Tana to learn like that - lies in the implication that the Eved of a man needs Milah, but not the Eved of an Ishah. Why should the Eved of a woman be any different than that of a man?

(c)Had the Pasuk not inserted the word "Ish" - it would simply come to preclude someone who has an uncircumcised Eved from participating in the Korban Pesach.

(d)The Rabanan, who maintain that an Eved Ish, like a ben Ish, cannot be circumcised against his will, explain the Pasuk "Kol Eved Ish ... " like Shmuel - who explains that an Eved who is still under the domain of his master (i.e. he has not been set free) is called an Eved, but not one who is not, from which he extrapolates that an Eved, whose master has set him free, does not require a Get Shichrur.

2)

(a)We have assumed until now that the Rabanan require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos by an Eved Meshuchrar, because that is how they hold by Eishes Yefas To'ar. On what grounds does Rav Papa suggest that there may be a difference between a regular Eved Meshuchrar and an Eishes Yefas To'ar?

(b)The Beraisa (that Rav Papa cites in support of his suggestion) says that both a Ger and an Eved that one buys from a Nochri require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos. By whom then, is Kabalas Ol Mitzvos not necessary?

(c)Why can the author of this Beraisa not be Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar?

(d)If, as we just proved, an Eved Meshuchrar does not require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos, even according to the Rabanan, in what connection does the Beraisa (that we learned on the previous Amud) say 'Echad Ger v'Echad Eved Meshuchrar'?

2)

(a)We have assumed until now that the Rabanan require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos by an Eved Meshuchrar, because that is how they hold by Eishes Yefas To'ar. Rav Papa suggests however, that there may be a difference between a regular Eved Meshuchrar and an Eishes Yefas To'ar, in that - it is only by the latter, who was not Chayav b'Mitzvos to begin with,that the Rabanan require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos (and by the same token, her consent); whereas by the former, who was, they will concede to Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar that he does not require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos.

(b)The Beraisa (that Rav Papa cites in support of his suggestion) says that both a Ger and an Eved that one buys from a Nochri require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos - but not an Eved that one buys from a Yisrael.

(c)The author of this Beraisa cannot be Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar - because in his opinion, an Eved that one buys from a Nochri does not require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos either.

(d)Seeing as an Eved Meshuchrar does not require Kabalas Ol Mitzvos, even according to the Rabanan, when the Beraisa (that we learned on the previous Amud) says 'Echad Ger v'Echad Eved Meshuchrar' - it must be referring to the obligation to Tovel (to teach us that, although the Eved Toveled already when he became an Eved, he must Tovel again when he becomes a fully-fledged Jew.

3)

(a)The Torah writes in Ki Setzei "v'Gilchah es Roshah v'As'sah es Tzipornehah". Rebbi Eliezer interprets "v'As'sah es Tzipornehah" to mean that she must cut her nails. How does Rebbi Akiva interpret it?

(b)Each one learns his opinion from the comparison to "v'Gilchah es Roshah". How does this comparison work, according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Eliezer?

2. ... Rebbi Akiva?

(c)What do we prove from the Pasuk in Shmuel "u'Mefivoshes ben Shaul Yarad Likras ha'Melech, Lo Asah Raglav v'Lo Asah Sefamav"?

3)

(a)The Torah writes in Ki Setzei "v'Gilchah es Roshah v'Asesah es Tzipornehah". Rebbi Eliezer interprets "v'Asesah es Tzipornehah" to mean that she must cut her nails. According to Rebbi Akiva - it means that she must let her nails grow.

(b)Each one learns his opinion from the comparison to "v'Gilchah es Roshah". According to ...

1. ... Rebbi Eliezer - it is comparing the cutting of her nails to the cutting of her hair.

2. ... Rebbi Akiva - it is comparing the act of making herself ugly by letting her nails grow long to that of making herself ugly by letting her hair grow long.

(c)We prove from the Pasuk in Shmuel "u'Mefivoshes ben Shaul Yarad Likras ha'Melech, Lo Asah Raglav v'Lo Asah Sefamav" - that 'Asiyah' in this sort of context means cutting, and not letting grow (like the opinion of Rebbi Eliezer).

48b----------------------------------------48b

4)

(a)According to Rebbi Eliezer, "u'Vachsah es Avihah v'es Imah Yerach Yamim" means that she literally cries for her parents. How does Rebbi Akiva explain it?

(b)The Tana Kama of the Beraisa learns from this Pasuk that she cries for thirty days, after which she is permitted to her captor. What does Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar learn from "Yerach", from "Yamim" and from "v'Achar Ken"?

(c)Ravina asks on Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar that, according to his Derashah, it ought to be a hundred and twenty days. How does he arrive at that figure?

4)

(a)According to Rebbi Eliezer, "u'Vachsah es Avihah v'es Imah Yerach Yamim" means that she literally cries for her parents; According to Rebbi Akiva - that she cries for her idols (like the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu "Omrim la'Etz Avi Atah ... ").

(b)The Tana Kama of the Beraisa learns from this Pasuk that she cries for thirty days, after which she is permitted to her captor. According to Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar - "Yerach" means thirty days, "Yamim" means another thirty and "v'Achar Ken", a third set of thirty days, making a total of ninety days.

(c)Ravina asks on Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar that, according to his Derashah, it ought to be one hundred and twenty days - "Yerach", thirty; "Yamim", thirty and "v'Achar Ken", another sixty.

5)

(a)The Torah writes in Va'eschanan "Lema'an Yanu'ach Avdecha v'Amascha Kamocha". Why does it then need to write in Mishpatim "v'Yinafesh ben Amasecha v'ha'Ger"? Who is meant by ...

1. ... "ben Amasecha"?

2. ... "v'ha'Ger"?

3. ... "v'Gercha Asher bi'She'arecha" (which precedes "Lema'an Yanu'ach" in Va'eschanan)?

(b)What major concession does Rebbi Yishmael learn from "ben Amasecha"?

(c)How does Rebbi Akiva explain "ben Amasecha"?

5)

(a)The Torah writes in Va'eschanan (regarding those who are obligated to keep Shabbos) "Lema'an Yanu'ach Avdecha v'Amascha Kamocha", and in Mishpatim "v'Yinafesh ben Amasecha v'ha'Ger".

1. ... "ben Amasecha" - refers to an uncircumcised Eved.

2. ... "v'ha'Ger" - to a Ger Toshav (who undertakes to relinquish the worship of Avodah-Zarah), and Chilul Shabbos is compared to Avodah-Zarah.

3. ... "v'Gercha Asher bi'She'arecha" (which precedes "Lema'an Yanu'ach" in Va'eschanan) - to a Ger Tzedek.

(b)Rebbi Yishmael learns from "ben Amasecha" - that one is permitted to retain uncircumcised Avadim.

(c)According to Rebbi Akiva - "ben Amasecha" refers to an Eved that one acquired just before dusk, and Shabbos entered before one is able to perform the Bris Milah.

6)

(a)What does Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi say about an Eved Kena'ani that one purchased from a Nochri, who refuses to perform the Milah?

(b)The Rabanan suggested to Rav Papa that Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi's statement does not conform with the opinion of Rebbi Akiva. Why is that?

(c)Rav Papa replied by establishing Rebbi Akiva by 'Lo Paska l'Milsei' and Rebbi Yehoshua by 'Paska l'Milsei', which some explain to mean that Rebbi Akiva is speaking when the Eved refused to comply with his purchaser from the very outset; whereas Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi speaks when initially, he agreed to convert but then changed his mind. How do others explain it?

6)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi says that if the Eved Kena'ani that one acquired from a Nochri refuses to perform the Milah - he may retain him for twelve months in the hope that he will change his mind. If he does not, then he must sell him back to a Nochri.

(b)The Rabanan suggested to Rav Papa that Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi's statement does not conform with the opinion of Rebbi Akiva - who forbids the retaining of a slave who has not had Bris Milah.

(c)Rav Papa replied by establishing Rebbi Akiva by 'Lo Paska l'Milsei' and Rebbi Yehoshua by 'Paska l'Milsei', which some explain to mean that Rebbi Akiva is speaking when the Eved refused to comply with his purchaser from the very outset; whereas Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi speaks when initially, he agreed to convert but then changed his mind. Others explain - that Rebbi Akiva is speaking when the owner initially purchased the Eved him Stam (without any conditions); whereas Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi is speaking when he stipulated at the time of purchase that he would only retain him for a year (should he refuse to circumcise), giving him the status of a hired worker (rather than of an Eved).

7)

(a)Rav Kahana asked Rav Zevid from Neherda'a why Rebbi Akiva then found it necessary to explain "ben Amasecha" to refer to an Eved whom he bought Erev Shabbos just before dusk. Why did he not establish it by a case of 'Paska l'Milsei'? What did the latter reply?

(b)Ravin quoting Rebbi Ilai, gives a third case of an Eved whom one may retain, and which Rav Papa again establishes even according to Rebbi Akiva. What is the case?

7)

(a)Rav Kahana asked Rav Zevid from Neherda'a why Rebbi Akiva then found it necessary to explain "ben Amasecha" to refer to an Eved whom he bought Erev Shabbos just before dusk; why he did not establish it by a case of 'Paska l'Milsei', to which the latter replied - that he might well have answered that, but the answer that he gave was equally correct, and that he gave one of two or three answers.

(b)Ravin quoting Rebbi Ilai, gives a third case of an Eved whom one may retain, and which Rav Papa again establishes even according to Rebbi Akiva - an Eved that he bought on the express condition that he would not circumcise him.

8)

(a)What did Rav Chanina bar Papi and various other Amora'im who were sitting by the four-poster bed of Rebbi Yitzchak Nafcha, relate about a town in Eretz Yisrael whose inhabitants purchased Avadim who refused to circumcise (and which follows the opinion of the Tana Kama of the Beraisa)?

(b)On what grounds does Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar disagree with the Tana Kama as far as Eretz Yisrael is concerned?

(c)Why, on the other hand, does even the Tana Kama agree with Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar in the case of a border town?

8)

(a)Rav Chanina bar Papi and various other Amora'im who were sitting by the four-poster bed of Rebbi Yitzchak Nafcha, related the story of a town in Eretz Yisrael whose inhabitants purchased Avadim who refused to circumcise - and they retained them for twelve months, before selling them back to Nochrim, like the opinion of the Tana Kama of the Beraisa.

(b)Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar disagrees with the Tana Kama as far as Eretz Yisrael is concerned - because, bearing in mind that Chazal decreed Tum'as Zav on Nochrim, retaining uncircumcised Avadim for so long means that all the Terumos with which they come into contact will be rendered Tamei.

(c)The Tana Kama, on the other hand, agrees with Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar in the case of a border town - because we are afraid that the Eved will pass on secret information that he overhears to his friends across the border.

9)

(a)What reason does Rebbi Chananya the son of Raban Gamliel in a Beraisa, give to explain why Geirim are poor nowadays?

(b)On what grounds, does Rebbi object to that reason?

(c)What alternative reason does he therefore suggest?

9)

(a)According to Rebbi Chananya the son of Raban Gamliel, Geirim are poor nowadays - because they did not observe their seven Mitzvos up to the time that they converted.

(b)Rebbi objects to that reason - because of the principle 'Ger she'Nisgayer, k'Katan she'Nolad Dami' (so Hash-m will not take into account what they did before they converted).

(c)He therefore suggests that it is because - they are not careful in their performance of Mitzvos.

10)

(a)Rebbi Elazar ascribes the Geirim's financial problems to the fact that they only serve Hash-m out of fear of punishment, and not out of love. What does Acheirim ascribe it to?

(b)What proof does Rebbi Avahu (or Rebbi Chanina) bring from the Pasuk in Rus "Yeshalem Hash-m Pa'alech u'Sehi Maskurtech Sheleimah Asher Ba'as Lachsos Tachas Kenafav"? What did Boaz mean by that?

10)

(a)Rebbi Elazar ascribe the Gerim's financial problems to the fact that only serve Hash-m out of fear of punishment, and not out of love. Acheirim (Rebbi Meir) - to the fact that they failed to convert immediately after deciding to do so.

(b)Rebbi Avahu (or Rebbi Chanina) brings a proof from the Pasuk in Rus "Yeshalem Hash-m Pa'alech u'Sehi Maskurtech Sheleimah Asher Ba'as Lachsos Tachas Kenafav" - from which we learn that Rus received her full reward for converting immediately and not delaying.

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