1)

(a)What is the source of Rebbi Yosi, who says that a Nezir Olam may trim his hair every Erev Shabbos?

(b)Rebbi learns a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Yamim" "Yamim" from Batei Arei Chomah that he may do so once a year. How can Rebbi say this, when he himself rules that "Yamim" mentioned with regard to the minimum period that one may redeem a house in a walled city refers to two days (and not to a year)?

(c)So how does he arrive at once a year? Which aspect of Batei Arei Chomah has that Shi'ur?

1)

(a)The source of Rebbi Yosi, who says that a Nezir Olam may trim his hair every Erev Shabbos is - the princes, who were accustomed to doing so.

(b)Rebbi learns a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Yamim" "Yamim" from Batei Arei Chomah that he may do so once a year, despite the fact that he himself rules that the "Yamim" mentioned with regard to the minimum period that one may redeem a house in a walled city refers to two days - because a two days growth cannot, by any stretch of the imagination, be considered 'heavy' (that it needs to be trimmed), the logic behind the concession.

(c)And he arrives at once a year - because even though the seller of a house in a walled city cannot redeem his house for two days, he does have a maximum time period of one year in which to redeem it. And it is that aspect of "Yamim" that he learns from the 'Gezeirah Shavah'.

2)

(a)Why does he prefer to learn from Batei Arei Chomah, rather than from ...

1. ... "Vayehi Miketz Shenasayim Yamim (in Mikeitz, regarding Paroh's dream), where "Yamim" means two years?

2. ... "ad Chodesh Yamim" (in Beha'aloscha, regarding the quails) where it means once a month?

3. ... "mi'Yamim Yamimah" (in Shoftim, where it means four times a year [once every three months])?

(b)In light of the principle of Rebbi Yishmael 'Mah Hi 'Shivah' 'Mah Hi 'Bi'ah' (that one can just as well learn a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Ba" from "Shav" as one can from "Ba", seeing as their meaning is similar), what is the difference between "Yamim" and "Yamimah"?

(c)In any event, (even if we were to reject this distinction) we could not apply this particular 'Gezeirah Shavah'. Why not?

2)

(a)He learns from Batei Arei Chomah, rather than from ...

1. ... "Vayehi Miketz Shenasayim Yamim (regarding Paroh's dream), where Yamim means two years - because it is preferable to learn "Yamim" without "Shanim" from "Yamim" without "Shanim" that from "Yamim with "Shanim".

2. ... "ad Chodesh Yamim" (regarding the quails) where it means once a month - because, in similar vein, he prefers to learn "Yamim" without "Chodashim" from "Yamim" without Chodashim.

3. ... "mi'Yamim Yamimah" (where it means four times a year [once every three months]) - because it is better, he says, to learn "Yamim" from "Yamim" than to learn it from "Yamimah".

(b)The principle of Rebbi Yishmael 'Mah Hi 'Shivah' 'Mah Hi 'Bi'ah' (that one can just as well learn a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Ba" from "Shav" as one can from "Ba", seeing as they have a similar meaning), only applies when the alternative of learning from exactly the same word does not exist - but when one has the option of learning "Yamim" from "Yamim", then Chazal will not learn it from "Yamimah" (bear in mind that the 'Gezeirah Shavah' that was handed to Moshe at Sinai was "Yamim" "Yamim", and Chazal had later to work out which two Pesukim this implied).

(c)In any event, (even if we were to reject this distinction) we could not apply this particular 'Gezeirah Shavah - because there is no indication that the four days annually that the girls would go out to mourn for the daughter of Yiftach occurred evenly (once every three months), perhaps they were spread out unevenly. So we are better off learning from a 'Gezeirah Shavah' which is clear, than from one that is not.

3)

(a)From where does Rebbi Nehora'i learn that the concession of a Nezir Olam trimming his hair applies once every thirty days?

(b)In that case, seeing as the Din of Kohanim is derived from the Din of a regular Nazir (whose Nezirus lasts for thirty days), why do we need to come on to Kohanim? Why can we not learn the Din of a Nezir Olam directly from a regular Nazir?

(c)Rebbi Yosi says once a week. In what way, we ask, does a Nazir Olam then differ from anyone else, who also shaves once a week. Did the questioner not know that a Nezir Olam is obligated to bring Korbanos when he trims his hair, whereas an ordinary person is not? Why did he not make this distinction to answer the Kashya?

(d)We give two answers to this Kashya. One of them, that an ordinary person is permitted to shave his hair on Erev Yom Tov that falls during the week, whereas a Nezir Olam is not. What is the other?

3)

(a)Rebbi Nehora'i learns that the concession of a Nezir Olam trimming his hair applies once every thirty days - from the Kohanim, who were obligated to cut their hair once a month.

(b)Despite the fact that the Din of Kohanim is derived from the Din of a regular Nazir (whose Nezirus lasts for thirty days), we need to learn the Din of a Nezir Olam from Kohanim (and cannot learn it directly from that of a regular Nazir) - because it is not logical to derive a Din concerning permanent Kedushah from one of temporary Kedushah (so we learn it from Kohanim, who also have permanent Kedushah.

(c)Rebbi Yosi says once a week. In what way, we ask, does a Nazir Olam then differ from anyone else, who also shaves once a week. The questioner knew very well that a Nezir Olam is obligated to bring Korbanos when he trims his hair, whereas an ordinary person is not. Yet he declined to make this distinction to answer the Kashya - because he was only concerned with the time period involved regarding the two cases, not other distinctions, of which there are a number (see also Rosh).

(d)We give two answers to this Kashya. One of them, that an ordinary person is permitted to shave his hair on Erev Yom Tov that falls during the week, whereas a Nezir Olam is not - the other, with regard to shaving on Friday morning, which others are permitted to do, but a Nezir Olam is not.

4)

(a)What does the Pasuk in Shmuel mean when it describes Avshalom going to fulfill his Neder at the end of forty years? Why can it not mean at the end of forty years of David ha'Melech's reign?

(b)Why does the Pasuk connect Avshalom with Yisrael asking for a king?

(c)Which events took place during the last five years of David's reign?

(d)How many years elapsed between the tenth year of Shmuel's leadership, when they asked for a king and the crowning of David ha'Melech as king?

4)

(a)When the Navi describes Avshalom going to fulfill his Neder at the end of forty years - he is referring to forty years from the time that the people asked Shmuel for a king. He cannot be referring to the end of forty years of David ha'Melech's reign - because David only reigned for forty years, and it is evident from Pesukim that his reign continued for another five years after the incident with Avshalom.

(b)The Pasuk connects Avshalom with Yisrael asking for a king - because the incident with Avshalom ended in his rebelling against David, and their requesting a king too, was considered by the Navi as an act of rebellion.

(c)During the last five years of David's reign - there were three years of famine, David counted Yisrael (which resulted in a plague), and he set up the twenty-four Mishmaros.

(d)Four years elapsed between the tenth year of Shmuel's leadership, when they asked for a king, and the crowning of David ha'Melech as king, two and a half of which Shaul reigned (Tosfos).

5)

(a)How does Rav Masna learn from the Pasuk "Kadosh Yiheyeh Gadel Pera" that Stam Nezirus lasts thirty days?

(b)What does bar Pada say? From where does he learn the period of Stam Nezirus?

(c)In fact, the Pasuk mentions a Lashon of Nazir thirty times. Why is "Ki Nezer Elokav al Rosho" excluded, making it twenty-nine?

5)

(a)Rav Masna learns that 'Stam Nezirus lasts thirty days - from the word "Yiheyeh" (in the Pasuk "Kadosh Gadel Pera") whose numerical value is thirty.

(b)bar Pada learns from the twenty-nine times that one form of Nezirus or another appears in the Parshah of Nazir - that Stam Nezirus lasts twenty-nine days.

(c)In fact, the Pasuk mentions a Lashon of Nazir thirty times. "Ki Nezer Elokav al Rosho" is excluded however, making it twenty-nine - because the word "Nezer" means a crown, and is not a direct derivative of 'Nazir'.

6)

(a)Rav Masna disagrees with bar Pada, on the grounds that at least some of those 'Nazir' are used for various Derashos. What do we learn from ...

1. ... "mi'Yayin v'Sheichar Yazir"?

2. ... "Ki Yafli Lindor Neder Nazir Lehazir la'Hashem"?

(b)What is the meaning of 'Nezirus Chalah al Nezirus'?

(c)How does Bar Pada defend his position? Does he not agree with the two Derashos that we just cited?

(d)How does bar Pada reconcile his opinion with our Mishnah, which states 'Stam Nezirus Sheloshim Yom'?

6)

(a)Rav Masna disagrees with bar Pada, on the grounds that at least some of those 'Nazir' are used for various Derashos. We learn from ...

1. ... "mi'Yayin v'Shechar Yazir" - that the Din of Nazir overrides even wine of Mitzvah (as we learned above).

2. ... "Ki Yafli Lindor Neder Nazir Lehazir la'Hashem" - that 'Nezirus Chalah al Nezirus', which means ...

(b)... that if someone says 'Hareini Nazir ha'Yom v'Nazir ha'Yom', he is obligated to observe a second term of Nezirus when the first one terminates (in spite of the fact that he said 'ha'Yom').

(c)Bar Pada agrees with the two Derashos that we just cited. He maintains however, that since there are so many other "Nazir" that are not subject to Derashos, we are able to include even those that are in the total, to learn from there that 'Stam Nezirus lasts twenty-nine days.

(d)Bar Pada reconciles his opinion with our Mishnah, which states 'Stam Nezirus Sheloshim Yom' - by including the thirtieth day, on which the Nazir is required to shave and bring his Korbanos, in the days of Nezirus (and until he has brought his Korbanos he is forbidden to drink wine and to render himself Tamei Mes.

5b----------------------------------------5b

7)

(a)How can bar Pada include the thirtieth day in the days of Stam Nezirus, considering that, according to him, a Nazir may shave and bring his Korbanos on the twenty-ninth day?

(b)The Mishnah later gives the day for a Nazir shaving as the thirty-first day. What is the problem with that?

(c)The Seifa however, seems to conform with his opinion. What does the Seifa say?

(d)How does bar Pada then account for the Reisha? What if he did not specifically say 'Shelemin'?

7)

(a)bar Pada includes the thirtieth day in the days of Stam Nezirus - because even though, according to him, a Nazir may shave and bring his Korbanos on the twenty-ninth day, that is only b'Di'eved. l'Chatchilah, he is obligated to wait until the thirtieth.

(b)The Mishnah later gives the day for a Nazir shaving as the thirty-first day - a problem for bar Pada, according to whom it should be permitted the latest on the thirtieth.

(c)The Seifa however - 'Im Gilach b'Yom Sheloshim, Yatza' seems to conform with his opinion.

(d)bar Pada accounts for the Reisha - by establishing a decree (even when one accepted Stam Nezirus) on account of when he said 'Shelemin' (a full thirty days), in which case he would only be permitted to shave and to bring his Korbanos on the thirty-first day.

8)

(a)And how does Rav Masna (who learns from "Yiheyeh" that Stam Nezirus lasts thirty days) explain the Seifa of the Beraisa? Why should a Nazir who shaved on the thirtieth day be Yotzei, even b'Di'eved?

(b)How do we know that bar Pada does not hold of 'Miktzas ha'Yom k'Kulo'?

(c)We ask on Rav Masna from the Mishnah at the beginning of the third Perek, which states 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim Yom, Im Gilach Yom Sheloshim, Lo Yatza'. Why is there no Kashya from there on bar Pada (who learned above that b'Di'eved, he is Yotzei on the thirtieth day)?

(d)How will Rav Masna explain that Mishnah?

8)

(a)Rav Masna (who learns from "Yiheyeh" that Stam Nezirus lasts thirty days) ascribes the Seifa of the Beraisa, which renders a Nazir who shaved on the thirtieth day Yotzei - to the principle 'Miktzas ha'Yom k'Kulo'.

(b)We know that bar Pada does not hold of 'Miktzas ha'Yom k'Kulo' - because if he did, the Mishnah would have rendered Yotzei even someone who brought his Korbanos on the twenty-ninth day.

(c)We ask on Rav Masna from the Mishnah at the beginning of the third Perek, which states 'Hareini Nazir Sheloshim Yom, Im Gilach Yom Sheloshim, Lo Yatza'. There is no Kashya from there on bar Pada (who learned above that b'Di'eved, he is Yotzei on the thirtieth day) - because that is when he accepted Stam Nezirus (which is twenty-nine days), but when he explicitly said thirty days, he will not be Yotzei on the twenty-ninth.

(d)Rav Masna too - differentiates between when he accepted Stam Nezirus, where we apply the principle 'Miktzas ha'Yom k'Kulo' (on the thirtieth day itself, and where he explicitly accepted thirty days, which, by virtue of this extra (unnecessary) Lashon, comes to include the entire day in the Neder (to negate 'Miktzas ha'Yom k'Kulo').