Velakach ha'Kohen ? ". How did the Kohen Gadol take the bood to the Ohel Mo'ed?
Sifra: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Velakach" "Vayikach" 1 - Sh'mos 24:6 that he takes it in a K'li.
Vayikach Moshe Chatzi ha'Dam Vayasem ba'Aganos".
Why does the Torah insert (the otherwise superfluous words) "Kohen ha'Mashi'ach"?
Rashi (in Zevachim, 24a): To teach us that the Kohen must take the K'li Shareis containing the blood in his hands, that nothing should interrupt between it and his hands.
Why does the Torah write "mi'Dam ha'Par" (See Torah Temimah, note 13):
Zevachim, 25a: To teach us that the Kohen must receive the blood in the K'li directly from the neck of the bull 1 and not gather it from the floor.
Zevachim Ibid.): As if the Torah had written 'Ve'lakach Dam me'ha'Par'.
Why does the Torah write "mi'Dam ha'Par" and not 'mi'Damo'?
Zevachim, 25a: To teach us that the Kohen must receive Dam ha'Nefesh and not blood from the skin or Dam ha'Tamtzis (that trickles out after the Dam ha'Nefesh).
Zevachim, 25b #1: To teach us that, immediately after Shechting the bull, the Kohen must raise the knife - in orfer to receive the blood of the bull itself and not the blood from the knife.
Zevachim, 25b #2: To teach the Kohen that the Par must be blemishless when he receives the blood, and that if he splits the ear after the Shechitah it is Pasul.
Why does the Torah write "Veheivi oso" and not just 'Veheivi'o'?
Yerushalmi, Horayos, 2:4: To preclude the blood of a Chatas that the Kohen Gadol brings for Avodas-Kochavim, which he sprinkles on the Mizbe'ach ha'Olah, and not on the Mizbe'ach ha'Ketores. 1
Sifra: To preclude the blood of a Pasul Korben, which may not be brought into the Heichal.
See Torah Temimah, note 17.
To which area is "Ohel Mo'ed" referring?
Rashi: To inside the Mishkan itself, and in the Beis ha'Mikdash, inside the Heichal.
Why, both by the Kohen Gadol and by the Par Ha'Eidah, is the blood sprinkled in the Heichal on the Mizbe'ach ha'Ketores.*
