Here it says that David burned their idolatry. Why does it say in Shmuel II, 5:21 "va'Yisa'em"?
Rashi (Shmuel II, 5:21 citing Targum Yonasan: Also there, it means that he burned it (Radak ibid. ? like it says here. This is like "va'Tisa ha'Aretz Mipanav" (Nachum 1:5), "Kim'at Yisa'eni Oseni" (Iyov 32:22). Malbim ? it is like Masas Ashan (making smoke rise.)
Radak (Shmuel II, 5:21, based on Avodah Zarah 44a): Itai ha'Giti was a Pelishti 1 ; when he saw the fall of the Pelishtim, he came to David. Before he came, they burned it, for idolatry is Asur b'Hana'ah. After he came, he was Mevatel it, and they carried what was not yet burned; now it was permitted.
There, Radak explained like Avodah Zarah 44a, that Itai ha'Giti was a Nochri. Elsewhere (Shmuel II, 12:30), he rejects this! Perhaps he holds that he converted in between. (PF)
Here it says "Eloheihem". Why does it say in Shmuel II, 5:21 "Atzabeihem"?
Malbim: Ezra explained that they were truly their gods.
Malbim (Shmuel II, 5:21): Here they are called Eloheihem, before Bitul. There they are called Atzabeihem, after Bitul.
