1)

What is the meaning of "v'Lo Darash ba'Shem"?

1.

Radak: He asked Hashem, but was not answered (Shmuel I, 28:6), and afterwards asked via an Ov, so it is considered that he did not ask Hashem, for he equated asking an Ov to asking Hashem. He should have sought Hashem again and fully repented, and not added to his sins via asking an Ov! Malbim (ibid.) - he did not seek Hashem with all his heart and Tefilah. Had he done so, this would have removed the decree (at least temporarily) and he would have been answered. Sha'ul merely asked without Drishah.

2.

Vilna Gaon: He accepted Leshon ha'Ra about Nov.

2)

Why does it say that the kingship was transferred to David?

1.

Malbim: The author always wants to aggrandize David's level. Sha'ul lost kingship due to his sin, and Hashem gave it to David, for he was worthy of it.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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