hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah see fit to mention "Oh Ben Yigach Oh Bas Yigach"? Why might we have thought otherwise?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1: Because in Pasuk 29 the Torah wrote "v'Heimis Ish Oh Ishah", 1 so we might have thought that if the ox kills a Katan, the owner is Patur. 2

2.

Ramban #2: Because when an ox kills a grown-up, it is wicked (like a wild bear). Consequently, if the owner has been warned three times and allows it to happen a fourth time, he deserves the death-penalty with an option of paying Kofer. Not so children, who tend not to be afraid of them 3 and for the ox to kill a child is more of a natural occurrence; we might have therefore thought that the owner is Patur.


1

Refer to 21:29:5:1.

2

As Rashi explains (regarding a case of murder) in Vayikra 24:17 (Ramban).

3

Seeing as oxen do not generally attack people.

2)

Why does the Torah begin the Pasuk with the word "Oh"?

1.

Ramban #1: It means literally "[if it (the ox) gores a man, or a woman,] or a son (a Katan) or a daughter (a Ketanah) ... ".

2.

Ramban #2 (citing the Radak) and Targum Yonasan 1 : It is synonymous with "Im". 2


1

See also Rashi in Vayikra, 4:23. Rashi in Iyov, 42:8, translates "Oh" as "Asher".

2

As we find in later in Pasuk 36, and in Vayikra (5:2). The Ramban however, rejects this interpretation together with the references. See Rav Chavel's footnotes.

3)

Rashi writes that our verse obligate even if it killed a minor. Why do we need a verse to obligate for killing an adult?

1.

Riva citing R"A: We might have thought that he is liable only for minors, for they do not know to guard themselves, but not for adults. Do not answer that verse 29 is needed to include biting, pushing and kicking. This does not explain why it says "Ish Oh Ishah"!

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