Why did Yosef use the expression 'Ba'os" in connection with the years of plenty, and "v'Kamu Sheva Shenei Ra'av" in connection with the years of famine?
Oznayim la'Torah: The former has connotations of friendliness, like two good friends appearing together, while the latter is a term that appears often in connection with murder, 1 because the famine was destined to destroy the land. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: See for example, Bereishis 4:8 and Devarim 19:11.
Oznayim la'Torah: As in 41:30.
Why does it say here "b'Chol Eretz Mitzrayim? Below (e.g. 41:31), it says only "ba'Aretz"?
Ohr ha'Chayim: The plenty will be only in Mitzrayim, but the famine will be in the entire world, like it says "va'Yehi Ra'av b'Chol ha'Aratzos" (41:54). 1 Also, if the famine were not in other countries, the cows would not be so thin. They would bring bread from other countries! There is no source that the satiation will be in all lands.
Malbim: The plenty will be only in Mitzrayim, but the famine will be everywhere in the entire world. 2 Yosef inferred this, for Pharaoh said that the fat cows came from the river, but he did not say so to Yosef about the thin cows. 3
Hagashas Ohr Bahir, in Likutei Ha'aros on Ohr ha'Chayim: According to our text (41:56), there is no proof according to Rashi and the Ramban (refer to 41:56:1 - PF). How did the countries far from Egypt survive the famine? Refer to 41:54:1:1 and the note there.
Seemingly, "Olos Achareihem" implies that they came from the same place! And according to the Malbim, why did Pharaoh see in his dream that also the thin cows came from the river? (PF)
