Seeing as Moshe commanded Yehoshua only much later - after Pasuk 28 in Va'eschanan (as recorded in Matos, Bamidbar, chapter 27), why is it mentioned here?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because of the principle 'Ein Mukdam u'Me'uchar ba'Torah' (and the Torah mentions it here in order to juxtapose Moshe's instructions to Yehoshua to his instructions to the two and and a half tribes).
?Eineha Ro?os eis Kol asher Asah Hashem Elokeichem li?Shenei ha?Melachim ha?Eileh?. Why did Moshe find it necessary to issue this statement here?
R. Bachye: To strengthen Yisrael and reassure them that they would defeat the thirty-one kings, and Yehoshu in that he would merit to Yisrael and see what he (Moshe) did not merit to see - bearing in mind that Sichon and Of were mihtier than Par?oh king of Egypt and his army. 1
R. Bachye In fact, their defeat was worthy of a SHirah, just like the Shirah that they sang following the defat of Par?oh. Only it was left to David ha?Melech to sing ?le?Sichon Melech ha?Emori ki le?Olam Chasdo; u?le?Og Melech ha?Bashan ki le?OLam Chasdo!?.
Why does the Pasuk begin with "Sh'nei Malchei ha'Emori"(kings) and end with "Kol Maml'chos ha'Aretz" (kingdoms)?
Oznayim la'Torah: In keeping with Chazal, that the nations of Cana'an hired Sichon andy Og to guard them against their enemies because they were the mightiest of all the kings. Consequently the Torah is now telling Yisrael that just as they had defeated the two mighty kings, so too, would they defeat the other kings - who were so weak compared to Sichon and Og that it was as if they had no king. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah.
