Who is eligible to perform the sprinkling?
Targum Yonasan: A Tahor Kohen.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ve'Hizah ha'Tahor al ha'Tamei ba'Yom ha'Shelishi"?
Nazir, 61b: To teach us that a Nochri who is not subject to Taharah, 1 is not subject to Tum'ah either. 2
Why does the Torah insert the (Otherwise superfluous) words "ve'Hizah ha'Tahor al ha'Tamei"?
Rashi (on Sotah, 39a): To teach us that the Kohen who is sprinkling must sprinkle on him with the specific intention of doing so.
Rambam Parah, 1:3: To teach us that, even if he is also Tamei via some other Tum'ah besides Tum'as Meis, he is sprinkled with the Eifer ha'Parah and becomes Tahor from Tum'as Meis, and when the time arrives, he becomes Tahor from his other Tum'ah.
R. Bachye (citing Yoma 14a): To extrapolate ?al Tamei Tahor" - ?he ?al ha?Tahor, Tamei? - ?If he sprinkles on someone who is Tahor, he bcoomes Tamei?. 1
Yoma, 14a: To teach us that the Kohen must have in mind to sprinkle on something that is subject to Tum'ah - such as a person, but not on something that is not - such as a live animal. 2
R. Bachye: And that is why Shlomoh ha?Melech exclaimed ?Amarti Echkamah, ve?Hi Rechokah Mimeni!" (Koheles 7:23).
See Torah Temimah, citing Yoma and note 111.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word ve'Hizah ha'Tahor al ha'Tamei"?
Yoma, 43b: To extraploate "ha'Tahor", 'mi'Chelal she'Hu Tamei' - to render a T'vul-Yom, - who has Toveled and is waiting for nightfall - eligible to perform the Haza'ah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 110.
"Vehizah ha'Tahor al ha'Tamei". What is the Din regarding one Tahor ssprinkling on a number of Teme?im simultaneously?
Yerushalmi D?mei 3:4: Despite the fact that "ha?Tamei" is singular, it is permitted. 1
See Torah Temimah citing the Yerushalmi and note 113.
"Vehizah ? Vechibes Begadav Verachatz ? ". What is the significance of the comparison of the Haza?ah to the Tevilah?
Kidushin 25a: It teaches us since the tongue is not subject to Tevilah, it is not subjet to Haza?ah either. Consequently, if the Tamei [erson?s tongue, he is not Yotzei.
What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) words "ba'Yom ha'Shelishi u'va'Yom ha'Shevi'i"?
Megilah, 20a: It implies that the Haza'ah must be performed after sunrise. 1
Megilah, ibid.: And Tevilah is compared to Haza'ah - "ve'Rachatz ba'Mayim ... ". See Torah Temimah, note 114.
Having written in Pasuk 12 "Hu Yischata bo ba'Yom ha'Sheleishi u'va'Yom ha'Shevi'i", why does the Torah repeat it here?
Kidushin, 62a: To teach us that "ha'Shelishi" is not merely to preclude Sheini, and "ha'Shevi'i", Shemini, but that the second sprinkling must take place four days after the first one - so that if the first sprinkling took place on the third day, the second one must take place on the seventh day and not on the eighth.
What are the implications of the words "Ve'chit'o ba'Yom ha'Shevi'i"?
Rashi: It implies that the process of his purification is complete on the seventh day and not earlier. 1
Sifri: It implies that only the second sprinkling must take place on the seventh day, but the Tevilah may be performed later. 2
Having just written "u'va'Yom ha'Shevi'i", why does the Torah repeat "Ve'chit'o ba'Yom ha'Shevi'i"?
Kidushin, 62a: To teach us that not only Kodshim, but also Terumah requires two sprinklings .
Rashi (in Eruvin, 101b): To teach us that whatever is subject to Taharah ("Vechit'o") is subject to 've'ha'Nefesh ha'Noga'as Titma" (to become an Av ha'Tum'ah) - to preclude K'lei Cheres, which are not subject to Taharah. 1
See Torah Temimah Note 117.
"Ve'chibes Begadav ? ". When must he Tovel?
