"ha'Yesh Hashem Bekirbeinu Im Ayin?" Why did they say "Im Ayin" and not 'Im Lo' ? like the Pasuk earlier ? in 16:4 - "ha'Yeilech be'Sorasi Im Lo?"?
R Bachye (according to Kabalah): Because "Yesh" and "Ayin" respectively refer to the Midos 'Chochmah' and 'Yir'ah' (Atzilus) ? which is called 'Ayin' because it is beyond human comprehension. In fact, the two are inseperable, indeed, the former stems from the latter, and it is because they tried to separate them 1 that Amalek came. 2
Here the Torah writes that Bnei Yisrael tested Hashem. Why does it then write in Parshas V'Zos Ha'Berachah, that Hashem tested the tribe of Levi at Mei Merivah (Devarim 34:7)?
Rashi (to Devarim 34:7): Levi's test was not to complain with the other complainers.
