What are the implications of "asher Lo ha'Bayis"?
R. Bachye #1 (citing Yoma, 12a #1): It implies that houses are stricken with Tzara'as because the owners treat them as their own personal property 1 - and refuse to lend anything to others who need it on the pretext that they don't have what they ask him for (or who decline to invite guests - R. Bachye). 2
R. Bachye #2 (citing Vayikra Rabah): "u'Va asher Lo ha'Bayis" - 'Zeh Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu'; "Vehigid la'Kohen" - 'Zeh Yirmiyah'; "ke'Nega Nir'ah Li ba'Bayis", 'Zeh Tzelem she'He'emid Menasheh ba'Heichal'.
Yoma, 14a: It confines Nig'ei Batim to a house which the owner fully possesses - to preclude the period of time - even after they captured Eretz Cana'an but before the land had been divided among the tribes, and before each family and each person had been alloted his portion.
Sifra: It implies that he must go to the Kohen personally, 3 and not send a Shali'ach - unless he is old or sick, and is unable to go himself, as implied by the word "u'Va". 4
Yoma, 12a #2: It implies that specifically the owner of the house must go to the Kohen, to preclude Shuls and Batei-Midrash which do not have living-quarters. 5
Oznayim la'Torah: Otherwise, it ought to have said 'u'Va Ba'al ha'Bayis'.
Refer to 14:35:4:1*.
See Torah Temimah, note 119.
See ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah.
Refer to 14:34:7:1**.
Why does the Torah write "Vehigid la'Kohen" and not 've'Amar"
Sifra: To teach us that ot is not enough to say to the Kohen "ke'Nega Nir'ah li ... ", but, upon the prompting of the Kohen, he must must inform him of the details of how the Nega came about.
"Vehigid la'Kohen Leimor". Why does the Torah insert the word "Leimor"?
Sifra: To teach the Kohen that he must answer - 'My son; Lashon ha'Ra comes on account of Lashon ha'Ra!
Why does the Torah add the prefix 'Kaf' in the word "ke'Nega... "?
Rashi: Because even a Talmid-Chacham who knows for sure that it is Tzara'as, is not permitted to declare it Tamei. 1 Only the Kohen may do so.
See Ozanayim la'Torah, DH 'ke'Nega Nir'eh lo ba'Bayis', who, citing the Tos. Yom-Tov, gives many reasons for this - See also DH 'ke'Nega' #2 & #3 - and then explains why this Din is not applicable by Nig'ei Begadim and Nig'ei Adam. See also DH 'ke'Nega' #1..
Why doe the Torah add the word ke'Nega Nir'ah Li"
Mo'ed Katan, 8a: To extrapolate "Li", 've'Lo le'Ori' - The Kohen is not permitted to inspect the house at night, when artificial light is required to illuminate it. 1
See also Torah Temimah, note 125, who elaborates
Why does ythe Torah add the word "ba'Bayis"?
What are the implications of 'ba'Bayis"?
