1)

Why does the Torah follow the B'rachos of abundance with the B?rachah of Shalom?

1.

Rashi: Because without Shalom those B'rachos are worth nothing. 1 Therefore the Torah concludes with Shalom, which is equivalent to all the B'rachos, like it says 'Oseh Shalom u'Vorei es ha'Kol'. 2

2.

Moshav Zekenim: Refer to 26:6:2:5.


1

Because whatever one has, the enemy will take for themselves (See Ikar Sifsei Chachamim).

2

See Sifsei Chachamim and refer to 26:6:151:1.

2)

What are the connotations of "Venasati Shalom ba'Aretz"?

1.

Rashi (in Michah, 4:4): This Pasuk refers to the statement there "And they will dwell, each man under his vine and under his fig-tree, and nobody will cause them to be them afraid".

2.

Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim #1: It means that Yisrael will live peacefully and not quarrel with one another.

3.

Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim #2: It is the 'K'lal', and the continuation of the Pasuk, " wild animals will cease from the land; you will pursue your enemies, and they will flee from you", the P'rat.

4.

Ramban #3 (according to Kabalah): It refers to the B'ris Shalom that Hashem entered into with Yisrael. 1

5.

Moshav Zekenim #3: Following the previous Pesukim - When there is saturation, there is Shalom.


1

Refer to 26:15:3:3*.

3)

What are the connotations of "Vehishbati Chayah Ra'ah min ha'Aretz"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing R. Yehudah in the Sifra): It means that Hashem will remove them completely. 1

2.

Ramban #2 (citing R. Shimon in the Sifra) and Targum Yonasan: It means that Hashem will withdraw from them the mandate to harm people. 2


1

Ramban: Because, since life is throbbing and the towns are full of people, the wild beasts will avoid them.

2

Ramban: See Yeshayah, 11:7, 8. Because, when Yisrael will perform the Mitzvos, the world will revert to how it was before Adam sinned, as the Gemara states in B'rachos, 33a 'It is not the wild mule that kills; It is the sin that kills!' See Ramban who elaborates. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.

4)

What are the implicatins of "ve'Cherev Lo Sa'avor be'Arzt'chem"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that, not only will no enemy attack you, but no armies will even pass through your land on their way to fight their enemies. 1


1

Ramban: On the contrary, you will pursue your enemies and they will flee, as the Pasuk continues.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

5)

Rashi writes that Shalom is equal to all the B'rachos, as the Pasuk writes in Yeshayah, 45:7 "Oseh Shalom u'Vorei es ha'Kol". But the Pasuk reads "Yotzer Or u'Vorei Choshech Oseh Shalom u'Vorei Ra"?

1.

Riva: "Ra" implies Midas ha'Din; through which bad (punishment) comes to the world, which Shalom removes. The Pasuk is therefore teaching us that, because Hashem created Ra, He makes Shalom in order to remove the Midas ha'Din - which is why it is equal to all [the B'rachos].

2.

Moshav Zekenim: The Chachamim enacted the B'rachah of 'Yotzer Or,' and changed from the wording of the Pasuk to write 'u'Vorei es ha'Kol' - because they understood that 'u'Vorei es ha'Kol corresponds to Shalom.

3.

Bartenura: Since the Chachamim fixed ese words in the Tefilah, it is considered like a Pasuk. 1


1

Bartenura: In the same way as, in a number of places, the Gemara cites sayings of Seifer Ben Sira as if they were Pesukim.

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