1)

(a)The Gemara asks whether or not, a Chatzitzah (an interruption between the water and the skin) will interfere with the Tevilah of a Tahor person who is Toveling before entering the Azarah - according to Rebbi Yehudah. Why is this She'eilah confined to the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah, and not to that that of Ben Zoma?

(b)What is the conclusion?

1)

(a)According to Ben Zoma, it is obvious that a Chatzitzah will prevent the Tevilah from being effective, like it does by all Tevilos d'Oraisa. The Gemara's She'eilah is confined to Rebbi Yehudah, who holds that this Tevilah is only mid'Rabanan - to remind him to Tovel should he be Tamei, and not to render him Tahor. Maybe, asks the Gemara, Chazal did not apply all the stringencies of a regular Tevilah to this Tevilah, and it will be effective even if there was a Chatzitzah?

(b)The Gemara concludes that whatever the Rabanan instituted, they instituted with all the specifications of a d'Oraisa, in which case a Chatzitzah will render the Tevilah invalid.

2)

(a)The Gemara then asks whether 'Bi'ah b'Miktzas Sh'mah Bi'ah, O Lo'. What exactly, is the She'eilah?

(b)How do we resolve it?

2)

(a)The Gemara asks whether 'Bi'ah b'Miktzas Sh'mah Bi'ah, O Lo' - whether someone requires Tevilah before sticking a hand or a foot into the Azarah, in the same way as someone who enters with his entire body does?

(b)We resolve the She'eilah with a Beraisa, which permits a Metzora to stick his right hand and foot into the Sha'ar Nikanor for the Kohen to place the blood of his Asham on to his thumb and big right toe - even though he is not permitted to enter with his entire body; so we see that 'Bi'ah b'Miktzas Sh'mah Bi'ah'.

3)

(a)The Gemara then asks whether a Tahor person who is standing outside the Azarah, needs to Tovel before taking a long knife and Shechting a Korban which is inside. How do we know that if someone Shechts a Korban in this way that the Korban is Kasher - in spite of the fact that if it had been the animal that was standing outside, the Shechitah would have been invalid?

(b)Why might Ben Zoma hold that ...

1. ... Tevilah would not be necessary?

2. ... that it would?

(c)It is obvious that the Rabanan of Rebbi Yehudah (who hold that, with the exception of a Metzora, a Tahor person does not require Tevilah) might hold that here too, he will not require Tevilah. Why might they however, agree that he does?

(d)What is the Gemara's conclusion?

3)

(a)The Gemara then asks whether a Tahor person who is standing outside the Azarah, needs to Tovel before taking a long knife and Shechting a Korban which is inside. We know that the Shochet is not obligated to stand inside the Azarah (even though the animal is) - from the Derashah "ben ha'Bakar Lifnei Hash-m" 've'Lo ha'Shochet Lifnei Hashem'.

(b)Ben Zoma might hold that ...

1. ... Tevilah would not be necessary - because it is only when he is standing inside the Azarah that Tevilah is required (like the Kohen Gadol, from whom we learn this Tevilah in the first place).

2. ... that it would - because the Shochet might be drawn after his knife and enter the Azarah without having Toveled.

(c)It is possible that the Rabanan do not require Tevilah before someone who is not performing the Avodah enters the Azarah; whereas in this case, where he is Shechting a Korban, he will require Tevilah even though he does not actually enter.

(d)The Gemara does not give a conclusion and leaves it as 'Teiku'.

4)

(a)What is special about the spring 'Mei Nefto'ach', and what is another name for it?

(b)What does this have to do with the Pasuk in v'Zos ha'Berachah "u'Vein Keseifav Shachen"?

(c)How much higher did Abaye reckon the spring of Ein Itam was than the floor of the Azarah?

(d)What was the height of the Sha'ar ha'Mayim? How do we account for the extra three Amos?

4)

(a)'Mei Nefto'ach' is another name for Ein Itam - the highest spot in Eretz Yisrael.

(b)Originally, David ha'Melech thought to build the Beis Hamikdash there - until it was pointed out to him that the Pasuk "u'Vein Kesefav Shachen" implies that it should be built a bit lower - like the shoulders of an ox.

(c)Abaye reckoned that the spring of Ein Itam was twenty-three Amos higher than the floor of the Azarah.

(d)The height of the Sha'ar ha'Mayim was twenty Amos, plus the three Amos of the Mikvah - place the Mei Nefto'ach on the same level as the Mikvah into which it flowed.

5)

(a)What about the additional Amah ceiling (i.e. of the Sha'ar ha'Mayim) and Amah cement which would normally have been necessary to prevent the water from leaking through?

(b)In any event, Abaye ought to have added the thickness of the marble ceiling to the twenty-three Amos. Why did he not do so?

5)

(a)Most ceilings would indeed need to be at least one Amah thick plus an Amah cement, to prevent the water from leaking through. The gates of the Beis Hamikdash however (as well as the ceilings to which they were adjoined) were made of marble, so that a thin ceiling sufficed.

(b)When Abaye said twenty-three Amos, he really meant twenty-three Amos and a fraction. He did not mention it - because it is common to deal with round numbers and not ignore the fractions.

31b----------------------------------------31b

6)

(a)Why did they make a point of spreading specifically a linen sheet between the Kohen Gadol and the people when he immersed in the Mikvah on Yom Kipur?

6)

(a)They made a point of spreading specifically a linen sheet between the Kohen Gadol and the people when he immersed in the Mikvah on Yom Kipur - to remind him that the main Avodah on Yom Kipur was with white linen garments.

7)

(a)What procedure did they follow from the moment the Kohen Gadol came out of the Mikvah (from his first Tevilah) until they brought him the Korban Tamid?

(b)In what way, did this undressing differ from all the subsequent undressings (from one set of clothes to the other)?

(c)Why was a second Kohen needed to complete the Shechitah (of the Tamid) which the Kohen Gadol began? Why could the Kohen Gadol not do it himself?

(d)What are the two meanings of 'u'Merak Acher Shechitah Al Yado'?

7)

(a)The moment he came out of the Mikvah (from his first Tevilah) - he dried himself, put on the Bigdei Zahav and performed Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim from the Kiyor. Then they brought him the Korban Tamid to Shecht.

(b)This undressing differed from all the subsequent undressings - inasmuch as it did not require Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim.

(c)A second Kohen needed to complete the Shechitah of the Tamid - because the Kohen Gadol had to quickly take a bowl and receive the blood, since the entire Avodas ha'Yom had to be performed by him on Yom Kipur.

(d)'u'Meirak Acher Shechitah Al Yado'. Al Yado either means 'on his behalf' or 'after him'.

8)

(a)Which Avodah did the Kohen Gadol perform after ...

1. ... sprinkling the blood of the Tamid shel Shachar?

2. ... bringing the limbs of the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim (before he brought the Nesachim)?

(b)After bringing the Ketores, preparing the Menorah, bringing the head and limbs of the Tamid shel Shachar and the wine of the Nesech, he had to Tovel (before changing into his four 'white garments'). Was he permitted to Tovel in warm water?

(c)How did they manage to heat it?

8)

(a)After ...

1. ... sprinkling the blood of the Tamid shel Shachar - the Kohen Gadol brought the Ketores.

2. ... bringing the limbs of the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim (before he brought the Nesachim) - he brought the Ketores.

(b)Normally, the Kohen Gadol Toveled in cold water on Yom Kipur. However, if he was old or finicky, they would heat up the water for him.

(c)They heated the water before Yom Kipur, and then, on Yom Kipur morning, they would pour it into his Mikvah (to take the sting out of the ice-cold water).

9)

(a)Rav Papa's disciples thought that the author of our Mishnah (which exempts the Kohen Gadol from the first Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim) cannot be Rebbi Meir. What does Rebbi Meir say, and why did they think that?

(b)Rav Papa repudiates their contention. Based on the Pasuk in Acharei Mos "u'Fashat ... v'Rachatz ... v'Lavash", how does he explain Rebbi Meir? In what point does he disagree with his disciples?

(c)How do the Rabanan of Rebbi Meir explain the Pasuk?

(d)How do Rav Papa's disciples prove Rav Papa wrong?

9)

(a)According to Rebbi Meir, the Kohen Gadol made Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim after he had undressed and after putting on his change of clothing. If so, argued Rav Papa's disciples, Rebbi Meir requires two Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim each time he changed into a new set of clothing (rather than one Kidush for the undressing and one for the dressing). That being the case, by the first change of clothing he ought to require two Kidushim no less than by the other changes. In that case, the author of our Mishnah, which only requires one Kidush, cannot be Rebbi Meir.

(b)Rav Papa disagrees. According to him, Rebbi Meir agrees that one of the Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim pertained to the undressing and the other, to the dressing. Only he Darshened "u'Fashat ... v'Rachatz ... v'Lavash" - to compare undressing to dressing: in the same way as he made the second Kidush after he had dressed, so too, did he make the first Kidush after he had undressed (this does not mean, he maintains, that the first Kidush too, comes for the dressing - like the second Kidush. According to him, it comes for the undressing).

(c)The Rabanan too, compare the first Kidush to the second: just as the second Kidush is performed when the Kohen Gadol is dressed, so too is the first. Both Tana'im hold however, that the first Kidush comes for the undressing, and the second, for the dressing.

(d)Rav Papa's disciples prove Rav Papa wrong - from a Beraisa in which Rebbi Meir specifically obligated two Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim by the first change of clothing, one after he had undressed from his Bigdei Chol, and the second after he had changed into his Bigdei Zahav - to conform with their original contention (that Rebbi Meir cannot be the author of our Mishnah).

10)

(a)How did Rav Papa react when his disciples quoted him a Beraisa, in which Rebbi does indeed require two Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim?

(b)According to the Rabanan of Rebbi Meir, who omit the first Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim by the Kohen Gadol, it would appear that he only performed nine of the Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim required by our Mishnah on Yom Kipur. How will we arrive at ten?

10)

(a)Rav Papa replied 'I Tanya, Tanya'. If it is a Beraisa, then I have to relent.

(b)According to the Rabanan of Rebbi Meir, who omitted the first Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim by the Kohen Gadol, we will arrive at the ten Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim required by our Mishnah on Yom Kipur - when he makes his last Kidush before removing his Bigdei Zahav to put on his Bigdei Chol.

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