1)

(a)Reish Lakish asked whether a man can give his Amah Ivriyah to his son who is a Katan for Yi'ud, seeing as the Torah writes "v'Im li'Veno Yi'adenah", and a Katan fits into the heading of "Beno". What is the other side of the She'eilah? Why might such a Yi'ud not be valid?

(b)Based on the Pasuk in Kedoshim "v'Ish Asher Yin'af Es Eshes Ish", what does the Beraisa Darshen from ...

1. ... "v'Ish"?

2. ... "Es Eshes Ish"?

(c)How does Rebbi Zeira try to resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah from there?

(d)How do we counter Rebbi Zeira's proof?

1)

(a)Reish Lakish asked whether a man can give his Amah Ivriyah to his son who is a Katan for Yi'ud, seeing as the Torah writes "v'Im li'V'no Yi'adenah", and a Katan fits into the heading of "Beno". Alternatively, such a Yi'ud might not be valid seeing as the Torah gives the father the option of either performing Yi'ud himself or of performing it through his son. We might therefore draw a comparison and say 'Beno, Dumyah Dideih; Mah Hu Gadol, Af Beno Gadol'.

(b)Based on the Pasuk "v'Ish Asher Yin'af Es Eshes Ish", the Beraisa Darshens from ...

1. ... "v'Ish" 'Prat l'Katan'.

2. ... "Es Eshes Ish" 'Prat l'Eshes Katan'.

(c)Rebbi Zeira tries to resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah from there in that if a Katan could perform Yi'ud, we would find Ishus by a Katan (contrary to the latter Derashah).

(d)We counter Rebbi Zeira's proof however inasmuch as if, as he understands, there was no such thing as 'Ishus' by a Katan then it would not be necessary to preclude him from Misah.

2)

(a)So how does Rav Ashi establish the case in the Beraisa? Why might we otherwise have thought that whoever commits adultery with his wife should be Chayav Misah?

(b)We resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah with a statement by Rebbi Ayvu Amar Rebbi Yanai. What does Rebbi Ayvu Amar Rebbi Yanai say concerning the Yi'ud of a Katan?

(c)We initially interpret 'Ein Yi'ud Ela l'Da'as' (which appears to be redundant) as the reason for 'Ein Yi'ud Ela b'Gadol'. What alternative interpretation do we offer to explain it?

2)

(a)Rav Ashi therefore establishes the Beraisa by someone who commits adultery with the wife of a Yavam Katan above the age of nine from Misah, who is Koneh his Yevamah. Consequently, we would have thought that if someone subsequently commits adultery with her, he will be Chayav Misah.

(b)We resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah with a statement by Rebbi Ayvu Amar Rebbi Yanai, who says 'Ein Yi'ud Ela b'Gadol, Ein Yi'ud Ela mi'Da'as'.

(c)We initially interpret 'Ein Yi'ud Ela l'Da'as' (which appears to be redundant) as the reason for 'Ein Yi'ud Ela b'Gadol'. Alternatively it refers not to the master, but to the girl (to teach us that, even though usually, Kidushin that is arranged through a girl's father does not require her Da'as, Yi'ud does).

3)

(a)What does the Beraisa quoted by Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu learn from "Asher Lo Ye'adah" in support of the previous (alternative) explanation?

(b)According to whom does Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu establish the Beraisa in order to explain it?

(c)On what grounds does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak refute this? How does he then explain the Beraisa?

(d)What difference does it make Halachically, between whether it is the original money that forms the Kidushin or the last Perutah's-worth of work?

3)

(a)The Beraisa quoted by Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu learns from "Asher Lo Ye'adah" in support of the previous (alternative) explanation that the master must inform the Amah that he is making Yi'ud with her (because the word "Ye'adah" contains the same letters as 'De'ah').

(b)In order to explain the Beraisa, Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu establishes it like Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, in whose opinion it is not the original money that forms the Yi'ud (in which case it would not require the girl's knowledge), but the last Perutah's-worth of work.

(c)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak refute this however on the grounds that the Torah writes "Ye'adah", irrespective of when the Kidushin occurs. It is in fact, a 'Gezeiras ha'Kasuv' that the girl must be aware of the Yi'ud.

(d)The difference Halachically, between whether it is the first money that forms the Kidushin or the last Perutah's-worth of work is whether the father is permitted to sell his daughter afterwards, according to Rebbi Akiva (bearing in mind that Yi'ud is considered Kidushin, as we learned on the previous Daf), respectively.

4)

(a)We finally quote the source of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah. What does he learn from the Pasuk "Asher Lo Ye'adah v'Hefdah"?

(b)What do the Rabanan (who are not quoted in the Beraisa) say?

(c)What is the reasoning behind Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah's ruling?

(d)What does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak say?

4)

(a)We finally quote the source of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, who learns in a Beraisa from the Pasuk "Asher Lo Ye'adah v'Hefdah" that Yi'ud must be performed before the last Perutah's-worth of work begins (as long as the possibility of redeeming the girl still exists).

(b)According to the Rabanan (who are not quoted here) as long as the master makes Yi'ud before the termination of the six year period, the Yi'ud is valid, even if less than a Perutah's-worth of work remains.

(c)The reasoning behind Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah's ruling is that it is not the original money (which the father received when he sold his daughter) that forms the Kidushin, but the last Perutah's-worth of work.

(d)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak maintains that it is unnecessary to say this. Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah may well concede that the Kidushin is formed by the original money, yet it is a 'Gezeiras ha'Kasuv' ("Ye'adah v'Hefdah') that the Yi'ud must be performed whilst the possibility of redeeming her still exists.

5)

(a)How does Rava Amar Rav Nachman extrapolate from Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah that ...

1. ... a man can instruct his daughter to accept her own Kidushin, even if she is a Ketanah?

2. ... a man can betroth a woman with a loan, provided she gives him a Mashkon?

5)

(a)Rava Amar Rav Nachman extrapolates that ...

1. ... a man can instruct his daughter to accept her own Kidushin, even if she is a Ketanah from the fact that, according to Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, the Yi'ud is effective, despite the fact that she is Mekudeshes only with the last Perutah's-worth of work, which she 'receives', and not her father.

2. ... a man can betroth a woman with a loan, provided she gives him a Mashkon from the fact that, according to Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, the master is betroths the girl with the work that she owes him (a loan), but for which he has rights over her (a Mashkon).

19b----------------------------------------19b

6)

(a)According to the Chachamim of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah ...

1. ... when may the master no longer perform Yi'ud with the Amah ha'Ivriyah?

2. ... when may he no longer treat her like an Amah Ivriyah?

(b)If a man says to a woman 'Hiskadshi Li me'Achshav l'Achar Sheloshim', and someone else betroths her during those thirty days, to whom is she betrothed once the thirty days terminate?

(c)From where does the Tana of the Beraisa derive this 'Mashal'?

(d)What is the Tana teaching us regarding a case where the master did not say 'me'Achshav'?

6)

(a)According to the Chachamim of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, the master ...

1. ... may no longer perform Yi'ud with the Amah ha'Ivriyah after the six years have terminated.

2. ... may no longer treat her like an Amah Ivriyah once he has made Yi'ud with her.

(b)If a man says to a woman 'Hiskadshi Li me'Achshav l'Achar Sheloshim', and someone else betroths her during those thirty days she is betrothed to the first man once the thirty days terminate.

(c)The Tana of the Beraisa derives this 'Mashal' from the Rabanan of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah, who maintain that it is the original money that effects the Yi'ud.

(d)The Tana is teaching us that even though the master did not say 'me'Achshav' (and we might have applied this to Kidushin and said that the same will apply even if the first man did not say 'me'Achshav'), we take for granted that the master meant to say 'me'Achshav, even though he did not say it. Consequently, in the case of Kidushin, in the event that the first man did not say me'Achshav, the Kidushin will only take effect at the end of thirty days, provided nobody else betrothed her in between.

7)

(a)In a second Beraisa, Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah rules that if someone sells his daughter and then betroths her to somebody else, the father can laugh at the master and she is betrothed to the second man. What do the Chachamim say?

(b)What 'Mashal' does the Tana give, this time in support of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(c)What is the Tana teaching us with this Mashal? Is it not obvious that we can extrapolate that from the opinion of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

7)

(a)In a second Beraisa, Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah rules that if someone sells his daughter and then betroths her to somebody else, the father can laugh at the master and she is betrothed to the second man. According to the Chachamim the master still has the right to make Yi'ud, should he so wish.

(b)The Tana gives a 'Mashal' in support of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah to a man who betrothed a woman after thirty days. If another man then betroths her, he says, she is betrothed to him.

(c)The Tana is teaching us that even though the master did not specifically say 'le'Achar Sheloshim Yom' (and we might have learned from there that if he had, she would be betrothed from now, even according to Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah) and in the case of Kidushin, she will be betrothed to the first man, it is nevertheless considered as if he had said it. And still, she is betrothed to the second man, because the first man did not say 'me'Achshav'.

8)

(a)In a third Beraisa, Rebbi Meir rules that if a man sells his daughter on condition that the master does not perform Yi'ud, his condition is valid. What do the Chachamim say?

(b)What does Rebbi Meir say with regard to someone who betroths a woman on condition that he is exempt from 'She'er K'sus v'Onah' (the basic marital obligations of a man to his wife)?

(c)On what basis does Rebbi Yehudah differentiate between food and clothing on the one hand, and Bi'ah on the other?

(d)How does Chizkiyah reconcile the apparent contradiction in Rebbi Meir, by citing the Pasuk in Mishpatim "v'Chi Yimkor Ish Es Bito l'Amah"?

8)

(a)In a third Beraisa, Rebbi Meir rules that if a man sells his daughter on condition that the master not make Yi'ud, his condition is valid the Chachamim apply the principle 'Kol ha'Masneh Al Mah she'Kasuv ba'Torah, Tena'o Batel', as a result of which the master retains the right to make Yi'ud (in spite of the father's condition).

(b)According to Rebbi Meir, if someone betroths a woman on condition that he is exempt from 'She'er Ksus v'Onah' (the basic marital obligations of a man to his wife) she is betrothed, and his condition is void.

(c)Rebbi Yehudah differentiates between food and clothing on the one hand (where his condition is valid) and Bi'ah on the other (where it is not) because money is subject to Mechilah (one can forego it), whereas Bi'ah is not.

(d)Chizkiyah reconciles the apparent contradiction in Rebbi Meir, by citing the Pasuk "v'Chi Yimkor Ish Es Bito l'Amah" which (is superfluous, and which) teaches us that it is possible to sell one's daughter as an Amah only, without the option of making Yi'ud.

9)

(a)What do the Chachamim learn from "l'Amah"?

(b)Why can we not learn this from a 'Kal va'Chomer' from the fact that he can betroth her to Pesulim (b'Di'eved)?

9)

(a)The Chachamim learn from "l'Amah" that it is possible to sell one's daughter to Pesulim (such as a Mamzer or a Nasin, with whom Kidushin are effective b'Di'eved).

(b)We cannot learn this from a 'Kal va'Chomer' from the fact that he can betroth her to Pesulim (b'Di'eved) because Kidushin has a distinct advantage over Mecher, inasmuch as a man can betroth his daughter who is a Na'arah, even though he can no longer sell her.

10)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer disagrees with the Tana Kama. What does he learn from "Im Ra'ah b'Einei Adonehah Asher Lo Ye'adah"?

(b)What does he then learn from "l'Amah"?

(c)Why does he need "l'Amah" for this? Why can he not learn it from the fact that he can sell her to Pesulim?

(d)If Rebbi Meir learns 'Mochrah li'Pesulim' from the same source as Rebbi Eliezer, why does he learn from "l'Amah" that the father's condition not to make Yi'ud is valid. Why does he not learn "Mochrah li'Kerovim', like Rebbi Eliezer?

10)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer disagrees with the Tana Kama. He learns that a man can sell his daughter to Pesulim from "Im Ra'ah b'Einei Adonehah Asher Lo Ye'adah" referring to someone who is hated in marriage (i.e. Pesulim).

(b)From "l'Amah", he learns that he can even sell her to relatives too.

(c)He needs "l'Amah" for this, and cannot learn it from the fact that he can sell her to Pesulin because there at least, Kidushin will be effective b'Di'eved, whereas if he sells her to relatives, it will not.

(d)Even though Rebbi Meir learns 'Mochrah li'Pesulim' from the same source as Rebbi Eliezer, he learns from "l'Amah" that the father's condition not to make Yi'ud is valid, declining to learn "Mochrah li'Kerovim', like Rebbi Eliezer because he follows the opinion of the Rabanan (earlier in the Sugya), who hold 'Ein Mochrah li'Kerovim'.

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