1)

(a)Rav Ashi just substantiated Abaye's opinion from the Seifa of our Mishnah - which concludes 'u'Vil'vad she'Hi Tzerichah Lomar b'Fanai Nichtav ... ', proving that the Tana there too, is referring to Chutz la'Aretz. How does Rav Yosef (who himself established the previous Mishnah of Suma [referred to as 'the Reisha'] with regard to Chutz la'Aretz) counter Abaye's proof? How could 'Af ha'Nashim she'Einan Ne'emanos Lomar Mes Ba'alah ... ' be referring to Eretz Yisrael?

(b)How does he extrapolate this from the words ' ... Mah Bein Get l'Misah, sheha'Kesav Mochi'ach'?

(c)How does Abaye then explain 'sheha'Kesav Mochi'ach'?

2)

(a)The Tana permits a woman to bring her own Get from overseas. Why is she not divorced the moment she receives it?

(b)On what grounds do we refute the suggestion ...

1. ... of Rav Huna, that her husband stipulated that she would only become divorced when she reached such-and-such a Beis-Din?

2. ... of Rav Achah Brei d'Rav Ika, that the Tana is speaking where her husband stipulated that she was to place the Get on the round there, and to become divorced when she picked it up? What did Rava say about such a case?

(c)So how do we finally establish our Mishnah?

3)

(a)We try to refute the final answer too, on the grounds that 've'Ha Lo Chazrah Shelichus Etzel ha'Ba'al'? What does this mean?

(b)How do we get round this problem? What additional condition must her husband make to circumvent this problem?

(c)On what grounds do we query this explanation?

4)

(a)One of the reasons that they forbid it is because it is demeaning to her husband's dignity not to accept the Get directly from his Shali'ach. Why will that reason not apply here?

(b)What is the other reason given for the prohibition?

(c)How do we re-establish the case to circumvent the problem?

(d)Is there no problem with a a Shali'ach l'Holachah appointing a second Shali'ach l'Holachah?

HADRAN ALACH 'HA'MEIVI GET (BASRA)'

PEREK KOL HA'GET

5)

(a)What example does the Mishnah give of ...

1. ... a Get that is written she'Lo Lishmah?

2. ... a Get that is actually written Lishmah and yet it is Pasul?

3. ... a Get that is even written specifically on behalf of the man's wife, yet it is still Pasul?

(b)What case does the Tana then present where the Get is even written on behalf of the woman who eventually receives it, yet it is still Pasul?

(c)On what grounds is this Get not valid?

24b----------------------------------------24b

6)

(a)If the second case in our Mishnah speaks when the man changed his mind about divorcing his wife, then how does Rav Papa establish the first case (when he heard the Sofer announcing the details that tallied with his own)?

(b)How does Rav Ashi prove this from the Lashon 'Sofrin Makrin'?

7)

(a)The Tana writes 'Yeser mi'Kein' by each subsequent case, because it is indeed a bigger Chidush than the previous one. What would we have thought, had the Torah just written ...

1. ... "v'Nasan Sefer Kerisus b'Yadah" (and omitted "v'Kasav")?

2. ... "v'Kasav Sefer Kerisus v'Nasan b'Yadah" (and not "v'Kasav Lah")?

(b)What do we then learn from "Lah"?

8)

(a)We learned in out Mishnah, that if a man with two wives who have the same name writes a Get for one of them, he may not divorce the other one. This implies that he may divorce the wife for whom the Get was written. Why might we have thought otherwise?

(b)What Halachah (concerning two Yosef ben Shimon who reside in the same town) does Rava extrapolate from this inference?

(c)Abaye counters Rava's proof however, from the Reisha of our Mishnah 'Shemi k'Shimcha, Pasul Legaresh Bo', refuting the very same inference that Rava made from the Seifa, on the basis of the Mishnah in Bava Basra. What does the Tana there say about a third person who produces a Shtar against one of the two Yosef ben Shimons (or one Yosef ben Shimon against the other)?

(d)How does Abaye therefore establish both Mishnayos, negating his own Kashya and Rava's proof with one stroke?

9)

(a)According to Rav, despite the fact that all the Gitin in our Mishnah (except for one) are Pasul, they nevertheless disqualify the woman from marrying a Kohen or from remaining with her husband, in the event that he is a Kohen. Why is that?

(b)Which case is the exception?

(c)What do we learn from the Pasuk "v'Ishah Gerushah me'Ishah Lo Yikachu"?

(d)Shmuel, who is even more stringent than Rav, follows his own ruling in Yevamos. What does he say ...

1. ... here?

2. ... there with regard to ... a. a Get Pasul? and b. Chalitzah Pesulah? How does he learn it from the Pasuk "... Asher Lo Yivneh Es Beis Achiv"?

10)

(a)Rebbi Elazar is quoted in Eretz Yisrael differently than Shmuel, with regard to Chalitzah Pesulah. What basic distinction does he make between 'Chalitzah bi'Semol uva'Laylah' on the one hand, and 'Katan (she'Chalatz) v'Anpilya' on the other? What is 'Anpilya'?

(b)Ze'iri and Rav Asi maintain that all the cases in our Mishnah do not invalidate the woman from marrying a Kohen except for the last one. Why is that?

(c)The last opinion is that of Rebbi Yochanan. What does he say?