The gemara seems to say the Roman nation has no unique language of its own. But as far as I know, Latin is the language of the Roman nation and goes back far in time. Why isn't Latin considered unique to the Roman nation?
Menachem Weiman, St Louis USA
Hi Menachem,
Great question!
I will begin with Rashi which you probably know, that it is not that they do not have their own language, but rather that the language is not original but taken from other nations. This is also what the Tosfos wrote (Avodah Zerah 10a, D"H she'Ein) as other Rishonim too.
The Chatam Sofer (on this Gemara) says that the intention of the Gemara and Rashi is that their language is not one of the original seventy languages ??that the nations spoke after they separated, but rather Latin is a language "Latina invented in the third millennium".
The Tosfos I mentioned, gives another answer, which characterizes the language of the Roman Empire as an unimportant language, that is, not that they do not have a language, but that it is not important enough, since the empire did not use it.
In the Sefer ha'Aruch (end of letter Lamed) it seems that he has difficulty with your question.He says that the Roman kingdom that is mentioned here, is a division of the great Roman kingdom, a small kingdom called "Albanizi", and they do not have a language of themselves.
I hope this helps,
Aharon Stiener