The gemara contrasts the actions of Moshe with those of the rest of the jews at the time of yetzias mitrayim and say that moshe was involved in the mitzvah of retrieving yosef's bones, whereas the jews were involved in materialistic matters and not doing a mitzvah, and the pasuk in mishlei applies to moshe as opposed to the rest of klal yisrael. My question is thatwhy are we not saying that the Jews were also doing a mitzvah, they were retrieving the valuables as per the command of Hash-m. Is this not a mitzvah? Especially considering the fact that they did not even want the money to begin with and just wanted to get out of Egypt as soon as possible, and Hash-m had to plead with them, by using the word "Na", please, when telling them to collect the valuables, as the Gemara in Berachos 9a-b. Furthermore, it is implied from Rashi, Shemos 12:36, that the Jews were still reluctant to borrow many vessels, and the Egyptians gave it over to them voluntarily. If they were following the orders of Hash-m, why are they not coined as doing a mitzvah at this time and are seemingly put down (Rabbeinu Bechaye to Shemos 13:19 phrases it as: b'Od she'Havi Yisrael Mishtadlim b'Tzorchei ha'Guf u'Misaskim b'She'eilas Kesef v'Zahav, Hayah Moshe Misasek b'Tzorchei ha'Nefesh b'Dvar Mitzvah) and they are seemingly faulted for not doing a mitzvah, as opposed to Moshe Rabbeinu. What could they be doing during this time. Hash-m explicitly told them to collect, so they couldn't go get yosef's bones...

Furthermore, to me, it seems like their mitzvah and moshe mitzvah were identical in that they served the same purpose - to fulfill a promise. Moshe was fulfilling the promise made to yosef to take out his bones from egypt, while the jews were acting on behalf of Hash-m to fulfill His promise to Avraham avinu that his descendents would leave egypt wealthy. Why is their act not viewed as a mitzvah?

Thank you Rav

Elisha Yagudayev, Flushing, United States