The mishna states "The cutim are not subject to nezirus". The mefaresh explains the "ovdei cocavim" and also the rosh.Plus the Gemara itself asks mina hani mili? And answers from "daber el binei yisroel" which implies "vlo lovdei chachamim" not to idolaters or nonjews.So if the mishna is teachin a din by all nonjews why did is say Cutim? Why specifically cutim it could be any nonjews?
Daniel Fishman, Lawrence, America
The Vilna Gaon (Mishnayos Ohalos 17:3) points out that the Mishnah after uses the term "Kusim" to refer to Nochrim in general.
By the way, most of the times this occurs, it is a censor's fault. For instance, in the Mishnayos, our Mishnah starts with the word "ha'Goyim," not "ha'Kusim," and that is probably the correct Girsa.
Be well,
Mordecai Kornfeld