1)

(a)Some opinions cite the Machlokes between Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish with regard to our Mishnah 'ha'Or ve'ha'Rotav ... Mitztarfin Letamei Tum'as Ochlin'. Resh Lakish qualifies this ruling, restricting it to a bone which has a Din Shomer. Why will this ruling not pertain to a strand of hair?

(b)Why according to this Lashon, are they arguing with regard to Shomer and not Yad?

(c)On what basis does Rebbi Yochanan then argue with Resh Lakish?

1)

(a)Some opinions cite the Machlokes between Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish with regard to our Mishnah 'ha'Or ve'ha'Rotav ... Mitztarfin Letamei Tum'as Ochlin'. Resh Lakish qualifies this ruling, restricting it to a bone which has a Din Shomer. According to Resh Lakish, this will not pertain to a strand of hair - because he considers it a Shomer al-Gabei Shomer.

(b)According to this Lashon, they are arguing about Shomer and not Yad - because Yad does not combine to make up the Shi'ur Tum'ah of food, as we learned earlier ...

(c)... and Rebbi Yochanan maintains that - a strand of hair is not considered a Shomer al-Gabei Shomer because it pierces the skin right through to the Basar.

2)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan queried Resh Lakish from the Beraisa 'Or she'Yesh alav k'Zayis Basar ... Ha'Noge'a ... be'Sa'arah she'Kenegdo Tamei', which, he assumes, is talking about a hair that is a Shomer. What did Resh Lakish answer?

(b)And what did Resh Lakish reply, when Rebbi Yochanan askedhim what purpose one strand of hair serves?

2)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan queries Resh Lakish from the Beraisa 'Or she'Yesh alav k'Zayis Basar ... ha'Noge'a ... be'Sa'arah she'Kenegdo Tamei', which he assumes is talking about a hair that is a Shomer. To which Resh Lakish's replies that - the Beraisa is talking about Yad, and not Shomer.

(b)And when Rebbi Yochanan asked Resh Lakish what purpose one strand of hair serves, he replied - in the case of one hair together with other hairs ('bi'Melai she'Bein ha'Mela'in', like Rebbi Ila'a).

3)

(a)What objection did Abaye raise, when Rava defined 'Rotav' in our Mishnah as Shuman (Kasher fat)?

(b)So how did Rava amend his definition? What is 'Rotav'?

(c)What did Resh Lakish say about someone who eats vegetable juice (or fish-juice that is used as a condiment) together with vegetables on Yom Kipur?

(d)Then why does Rava require the Rotav in our Mishnah to be congealed?

(e)What if someone eats and drinks a combined Shi'ur of a Koseves on Yom Kipur?

3)

(a)When Rava defined Rotav in our Mishnah as Shuman (Kasher fat), Abaye objected - on the grounds that Shuman is a food in its own right, and does not require Tziruf.

(b)So Rava amended his definition of Rotav - to a viscous fluid that oozes from the Basar and congeals).

(c)Resh Lakish ruled that someone who eats vegetable juice (or fish-juice that is used as a condiment) together with vegetables on Yom Kipur - is Chayav.

(d)Nevertheless, Rava requires the Rotav in our Mishnah to be congealed - because where the Torah requires Achilah, food and drink do not combine under any circumstances; but on Yom Kipur, where the Torah requires Inuy (affliction), eating a vegetable together with its own juice is sufficient to remove the affliction ...

(e)... but not if someone eats and drinks a combined Shi'ur of a Koseves on Yom Kipur. Under such circumstances - food and drink combined will not remove the Inuy.

4)

(a)What objection did Abaye raise, when Rava defined 'Kifah' in our Mishnah as the sediment of meat?

(b)How did Rav Papa therefore define it?

4)

(a)When Rava defined Kifah in our Mishnah as the sediment of meat, Abaye objected on the grounds that - sediment is a food in its own right, and does not require Tziruf.

(b)Rav Papa therefore defined it as - the spices together with which the meat was cooked.

5)

(a)What does the Mishnah in Menachos say about someone who eats congealed blood, or drinks melted Cheilev?

(b)What problem do we have with the latter ruling?

(c)Why do we take for granted that one is Chayav in the former ruling?

(d)What does Resh Lakish learn from the word "ha'Nefesh" [in the Pasuk in Tzav, in connection with the Isur of blood] "Venichr'sah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi")?

5)

(a)The Mishnah in Menachos rules that - someone who eats congealed blood (see Tosfos DH 'Hikpah') or drinks melted Cheilev is Chayav.

(b)The problem with the latter ruling is that - the Torah uses a Lashon 'Achilah' regarding Cheilev, so why should he be Chayav for drinking it?

(c)We take for granted that one is Chayav for eating blood - because congealed blood is more Chashuv than melted blood (though it is unclear why we need a source to be Mechayev him, since, in Parshas Acharei-Mos, the Torah constantly uses a Lashon of Achilah with regard to blood [see Tosfos DH 'Lerabos']).

(d)Resh Lakish learns from the word "ha'Nefesh" [in the Pasuk in Tzav, in connection with the Isur of blood] "Venichr'sah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi")that - one is Chayav for drinking blood (because 'Nefesh' has connotations of satisfaction and pleasure, incorporating drinking).

6)

(a)Why is there no problem with the Beraisa, which rules that someone who drinks melted Matzah has not fulfilled his obligation?

(b)From where does Resh Lakish nevertheless learn that if someone eats melted Chametz he is Chayav (despite the Lashon 'Achilah' used by the Torah in this regard)?

(c)In which third area of Halachah does Resh Lakish give drinking the same Din as eating, based on "Nefesh"(in Parshas Acharei-Mos)?

(d)Why does the Beraisa restrict this to where the carcass was melted by fire, precluding there where it was melted by the sun?

6)

(a)There is no problem with the Beraisa, which rules that someone who drinks melted Matzah has not fulfilled his obligation - because it is obvious that melted Matzah is not considered "Lechem Oni".

(b)Resh Lakish nevertheless learns that if someone eats melted Chametz he is Chayav (despite the Lashon Achilah used by the Torah in this regard) - because here too, the Torah in Parshas Bo, uses the word "Nefesh".

(c)The third area of Halachah where, again based on "Nefesh" (in Parshas Acharei-Mos), Resh Lakish gives drinking the same Din as eating, is - where someone who eats Nivlas Of Tahor becomes Tamei together with the clothes he is wearing.

(d)The Beraisa restricts this to where the carcass was melted by fire, precluding there where it was melted by the sun - because then it becomes putrid (and loses its status of Neveilah).

7)

(a)Now that we know that 'Shesiyah ka'Achilah' (drinking is like eating) by Cheilev, why can we not learn ...

1. ... Chametz from it?

2. ... Neveilah from it?

(b)And why can we not learn ...

1. ... Cheilev from Chametz?

2. ... Neveilah from Chametz?

3. ... Cheilev and Chametz from Neveilah?

(c)And why can we not learn ...

1. ... Neveilah from Cheilev and Chametz?

2. ... Chametz from Neveilah and Cheilev?

3. ... Cheilev from Chametz and Neveilah?

7)

(a)Even though we know that Shesiyah ka'Achilah (drinking is like eating) by Cheilev, we cannot learn ...

1. ... Chametz from it - because unlike Cheilev, it had a Sha'as ha'Kosher (before Pesach).

2. ... Neveilah from it - because it is subject to Kareis, which Neveilah is not.

(b)And we cannot learn ...

1. ... Cheilev from Chametz - since Cheilev Hutar mi'Kelalo (there is an occasion when the Isur Cheilev becomes permitted [which will be explained shortly [or because it is Mutar be'Hana'ah]) which is not the case by Chametz.

2. ... Neveilah from Chametz - because it is not subject to Kareis like Chametz is.

3. ... Cheilev and Chametz from Neveilah - because Neveilah is Metamei, whereas they are not.

(c)Neither can we learn ...

1. ... Neveilah from Cheilev and Chametz - because it is not subject to Kareis ... .

2. ... Chametz from Neveilah and Cheilev - because it had a Sha'as ha'Kosher ... .

3. ... Cheilev from Chametz and Neveilah - because it is Hutar mi'Kelalo ... .

8)

(a)We suggest that 'Cheilev Hutar mi'Kelalo' means that ...

1. ... it is permitted to Hash-m (by being placed on the Mizbe'ach). Why can the same be said about Neveilah?

2. ... Cheilev Chayah is permitted? Why do we initially think that the same can be said about Neveilah?

(b)We conclude like the latter suggestion. How do we refute the counter-argument from Melikas Chatas ha'Of?

8)

(a)We suggest that Cheilev Hutar mi'Kelalo means that ...

1. ... it is permitted to Hash-m (by being placed on the Mizbe'ach). The same however, can be said about Neveilah - in the case of Olas ha'Of, which is killed by means of Melikah (which renders it Neveilah), and then placed on the Mizbe'ach.

2. ... Cheilev Chayah is permitted. We initially think that there as well, the same can be said about Neveilah - in the form of Chatas ha'Of, which is permitted to the Kohanim after Melikah.

(b)We conclude like the latter suggestion however - in that the Kohanim eat as guests at Hash-m's table, in which case the Cheilev is Mutar to Hash-m Kevayachol (as it is by all Korbanos), and not to the Kohanim. Consequently, Cheilev Chayah is indeed unique in this regard.

9)

(a)What does the Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Shemini (in connection with Sheratzim) "ha'Teme'im"?

(b)Why do we need an independent Pasuk by Sheratzim? Why can we not learn it from Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah?

(c)What do we learn from the fact that the Pasuk in Kedoshim "Vehivdaltem Bein ha'Beheimah ha'Tehorah ... " begins with Achilah and ends with Tum'ah?

(d)And why do we need P'sukim by Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah to teach us that one is Chayav for drinking them? Why can we not learn them (See Shitah Mekubetzes) from Sheratzim?

9)

(a)The Beraisa learns from the word "ha'Teme'im" (in the Pasuk in Shemini [in connection with Sheratzim] "Eileh ha'Teme'im lachem") that - the various body juices of a Sheretz and the sediment at the bottom of the pot in which they have been cooked are included in the Isur of Sheratzim.

(b)We need an independent Pasuk by Sheratzim to teach us that - the Shi'ur Achilah is that of a lentil (ke'Adashah), and not a k'Zayis, which (due to the principle of 'Dayo Lavo min ha'Din Lih'yos ke'Nadun' [anything that is learned from a 'Kal-va'Chomer adopts the same Din as what it is being learned from]) would have been the case had we learnt it from Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah.

(c)And from the fact that the Pasuk in Kedoshim "Vehivdaltem Bein ha'Beheimah ha'Tehorah ... " begins with Achilah and ends with Tum'ah, we learn that - the Shi'ur Achilah by Sheratzim is the same as the Shi'ur Tum'ah (k'Adashah).

(d)On the other hand, we need Pesukim by Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah to teach us that one is Chayav for drinking them - because, had we tried to learn them (See Shitah Mekubetzes) from Sheratzim - we would have refuted it with the Pircha that Sheratzim are different, inasmuch as they posses the strict Shi'ur of a k'Adashah (as regards both Tum'ah and Isur).

120b----------------------------------------120b

10)

(a)What does the Beraisa say about the juice of Tevel, Chadash, Hekdesh, Shevi'is and Kil'ayim?

(b)What does the Tana mean by the juice of ...

1. ... Chadash?

2. ... Shevi'is?

(c)We refute the suggestion that we learn these from the former three (Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah), on the grounds that the latter constitute an Isur that comes automatically. Which of the above list does this preclude?

(d)We therefore try to learn them from Bikurim (which also became Kadosh through the owner's declaration). What do we learn from the Pasuk (in Ki Savo "Velakachta me'Reishis Kol P'ri ha'Adamah asher Tavi ... ") from the word ...

1. ... "P'ri"?

2. ... "Tavi"?

10)

(a)The Beraisa states that the juice of Tevel, Chadash, Hekdesh, Shevi'is and Kil'ayim - has the same Din as the fruit.

(b)By the juice of ...

1. ... Chadash, the Tana means - the beer that is made from barley that is cut before the Omer has been brought.

2. ... Shevi'is, the Tana means - juice that is manufactured from Sh'mitah produce, that must be disposed of before the Z'man ha'Biy'ur.

(c)We refute the suggestion that we learn these from the former three (Cheilev, Chametz and Neveilah [See Tos. Yom-Tov]), on the grounds that the latter constitute an Isur that comes automatically - precluding Hekdesh, which becomes Asur only through the owner's declaration.

(d)We therefore try to learn the above items from Bikurim (which also becomes Kadosh through the owner's declaration). We learn from the Pasuk (in Ki Savo "Velakachta me'Reishis Kol P'ri ha'Adamah asher Tavi ... ") from the word ...

1. ... "P'ri" that - one must declare the fruit Bikurim in its original state (and not as juice).

2. ... "Tavi" that - after declaring the fruit Bikurim, one is permitted to press it and take the juice to Yerushalayim.

11)

(a)On what grounds do we refute the Limud from Bikurim?

(b)So we suggest that we learn 'Shesiyah ka'Achilah' by the above items from Terumah. From where do we learn 'Shesiyah ka'Achilah' by Terumah?

(c)Why can we not however, learn them from ...

1. ... Terumah?

2. ... a 'Mah Matzinu' from Terumah and Bikurim, either?

(d)So from where do we ultimately learn 'Shesiyah ka'Achilah' by the above items?

11)

(a)We refute the Limud from Bikurim however - on the grounds that Bikurim require K'riyah (reading the Parshah of "Arami Oved Ami") and Hanachah (placing beside the Mizbe'ach), which the above do not.

(b)So we suggest that we learn Shesiyah ka'Achilah from Terumah - which in turn, we learn from Bikurim.

(c)We cannot however, learn them from ...

1. ... Terumah - because Terumah is unique in that one is Chayav Misah (bi'Yedei Shamayim) for eating it be'Meizid, and an extra fifth, be'Shogeg).

2. ... a Mah Matzinu from Terumah and Bikurim either - for the same reason (since Bikurim possesses those same characteristics as Terumah in tnis regard.

(d)So we ultimately learn Shesiyah ka'Achilah by the above items from - the combination of Terumah (or Bikurim) and Neveilah (or Sheratzim - see Tosfos DH 'Ela').

12)

(a)In the Mishnah in Terumos, Rebbi Eliezer obligates someone who drinks date-honey, apple-cider or vinegar of winter grapes of Terumah to pay the principle plus a fifth. How do we know that he is speaking be'Shogeg, and not be'Meizid?

(b)What do we mean when we say that he holds 'Don Miynah u'Miynah'?

(c)How does that apply in our case?

(d)What bearing does the fact that the other fruit-juices are only mi'de'Rabbanan have on Rebbi Eliezer's statement?

12)

(a)When in the Mishnah in Terumos, Rebbi Eliezer obligates someone who drinks date-honey, apple-cider or vinegar of winter grapes of Terumah to pay the principle plus a fifth, he can only be speaking be'Shogeg - because someone who eats Terumah be'Meizid does not pay the extra fifth.

(b)When we say that he holds Don Miynah u'Miynah, we mean that - when he learns one thing from another with a Gezeirah-Shavah or a Binyan Av, he learns it in its entirety, together with the relevant details).

(c)Consequently, when he learns Terumah (which only applies to Dagan, Tirosh [wine] and Yitzhar [olive-oil] min ha'Torah) from Bikurim (which applies to the seven fruits plus their liquids), we extend it to all kinds of fruit-juices.

(d)The fact that the other fruit-juices are only mi'de'Rabbanan, means that - according to Rebbi Eliezer, 'Don Miynah u'Miynah' is La'av Davka (only that we apply it to cases of de'Rabbanan).

13)

(a)In which point does Rebbi Yehoshua disagree with Rebbi Eliezer?

(b)How will he apply that to the Din of Keren ve'Chomesh'?

13)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua disagrees with Rebbi Eliezer, in that he holds - Don Miynah ve'Uki be'Asra, which means that we learn the basic Limud from the case in question, but not the details.

(b)Consequently - he learns the basic Din of liquids by Terumah from Bikurim, but he restricts it to the fruit that is subject to Terumah min ha'Torah (wine [or grape-juice] and olive oil), exclusively.

14)

(a)When the Tana there says 'Ein Mevi'in Bikurim Mashkeh Ela ha'Yotzei min ha'Zeisim u'min ha'Anavim', how do we know that he is talking about bringing fruit that has already been declared Bikurim and squeezing it afterwards?

(b)Who is the author of this Mishnah? Why does he not consider the juice of the other five species to be Bikurim under these circumstances, too?

(c)And how will we explain the Mishnah there which confines Malkos for eating Orlah to someone who drinks olive oil or wine (or grape-juice), but not other beverages of Orlah?

14)

(a)When the Tana there says 'Ein Mevi'in Bikurim Mashkeh Ela ha'Yotzei min ha'Zeisim u'min ha'Anavim', he must be talking about bringing fruit that has already been Bikurim and squeezing it afterwards - because otherwise, even wine would not be considered Bikurim either (as we learned earlier).

(b)The author of this Mishnah is - Rebbi Yehoshua, who, after learning Terumah from Bikurim (as we explained), then learns Bikurim from Terumah (with the same Hekesh (based on the fact that the Torah in Naso, refers to Bikurim as Terumah), restricting the Din of liquids to wine and oil (which exclusively pertain to Terumah).

(c)And in the same vein - the author of the Mishnah there which confines Malkos for eating Orlah to someone who drinks olive oil or wine (or grape-juice), but not other beverages of Orlah - is also Rebbi Yehoshua, who learns Orlah from Bikurim with the Gezeirah-Shavah "P'ri" "Pri".

OTHER D.A.F. RESOURCES
ON THIS DAF