Having already written "ve'eis ha'Keves ha'Sheini Ta'aseh bein ha'Arbayim" in Pasuk4, why does the Torah seee fit to repeat it?
What are the implications of "Re'ach Nicho'ach"?
Rashi: It implies that Hashem derives Nachas Ru'ach (satisfaction) from the fact that His commands have been carried out.
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It implies that it is accepted by Hashem with goodwill.
What re the ramifications of the comparison of the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the Tamid shel Boker?
Yoma, 34a: It teaches us that the Ketores shel Bein ha'Arbayim precedes the Nesachim, like the Ketores shel Boker.
Why does the Torah compare the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the Minchah shel Boker and not to the actusl Korban?