1)

THE SOURCE OF KIDUSHIN WITH MONEY (Yerushalmi Halachah 1 Daf 1a)

בכסף מנין

(a)

Question: What is the source of Kidushin by giving money?

(דברים כב) כי יקח מגיד שניקנית בכסף

(b)

Answer: (Devarim 22, 13) "When (a man) will acquire (a woman)'' - (this teaches that) she is acquired by giving money.

2)

THE SOURCE OF KIDUSHIN THROUGH RELATIONS (Yerushalmi Halachah 1 Daf 1a)

בביאה מניין

(a)

Question: What is the source of Kidushin through marital relations?

ובעלה מגיד שנקנית בביאה

(b)

Answer: (ibid) "...and he will have relations with her'' - (this teaches that) she is acquired through relations.

הייתי אומר על ידי זו ועל ידי זהו כסף בלא ביאה ביאה בלא כסף מניין

(c)

Question: I might assume that he must both give money and have relations. How do I know that one method works without the other?

ר' אבהו בשם ר' יוחנן כתיב (שם) כי ימצא איש שוכב עם אשה בעולת בעל הגע עצמך אפילו לא קנייה אלא בביאה אמרה תורה הבא אחריו בחנק

(d)

R. Abahu citing R. Yochanan: (ibid, 22) "If a man will be found lying with a woman who is married to a husband (be'ulas ba'al)'' (i.e. they were married through relations). The Torah instructs that even if her husband only acquired her through relations, she incurs the punishment of strangulation if she is adulterous.

[כהדא דתני בעולת בעל להביא את המקבלת בעלה בבית אביה והיא ארוסה והבא אחריו בחנק]

(e)

Similar to the Braisa: "...who is married to a husband''- this includes even a betrothed wife who had relations with her husband whilst still in her father's house - even though she is still considered merely betrothed, one who is adulterous with her incurs the punishment of strangulation (rather than stoning).] (Note: The Korban HaEidah adds this sentence, based on the parallel sugya in the 3rd Perek of Kesuvos.)

[ו]לא סוף דבר בכדרכה אלא אפי' שלא כדרכה

(f)

Not only is strangulation incurred for adultery if the husband had originally had relations with her in the regular way but even in the irregular way (i.e. from behind).

רבי אבהו בשם ר' יוחנן לא צריכא שלא מכדרכה אין תימר מכדרכה למה לי בעלה אפי' אחר

(g)

R. Abahu citing R. Yochanan: The pasuk is specifically needed to teach the case of the husband who had relations in the irregular way - if you say that it is needed for the case of relations in the regular way, why is this law true only if her husband had relations with her before the adultery...even someone else had done so, the same law (of strangulation) would apply?! And if this is so, why would the pasuk have said "be'ulas ba'al'' - it could have said "be'ulas ish'' - i.e. any man?!

כיי דתנינן תמן באו עליה שנים הראשון בסקילה והשני בחנק

(h)

Proof (Mishnah): If two had relations with her, the first incurs stoning and the second incurs strangulation.

הא למדנו ביאה בלא כסף כסף בלא ביאה מניין

(i)

Question: This only proves that he can acquire her with relations without money. But what about money without relations?

ויצאה חנם אין כסף אם אחרת יקח לו מה זו בכסף אף זו בכסף

(j)

Answer: The pasuk states (Shemos 21, 11) in reference to a Jewish maidservant, "...and she shall leave free of charge, without payment''...and the previous pasuk states (21, 10), "if he shall take another addition to her'' (referring to a regular wife) - just as a maidservant is acquired with money, so is a wife.