The gemorrah says that if a woman were to have a mum then the husband can reneg on the marriage. Is this only where something is inherently wrong with the "chefetz"? or where there is something about the sale in general - otherwise - how is it that Yaakov's kidushin to Leah was valid? Wouldn't he have had to be remekadesh her, even if he consented to marry her?
And even if his intent were to marry that woman - would this be any different than a reverse case where a woman has in mind to accept a piece of silk and the gemorrah speaks about whether it is good, even though her da'as is seemingly on the cheftzah, given that she cannot be sure as to its exact value (at least in one lishnah)?
Thanks.
Moshe Rubin, Brooklyn, New York
Any deception or misunderstanding will render the sale invalid.
The Riva citing Rabeinu Tam asks your question. He answers that so afraid was Ya'akov of a Be'ilas Z'nus (being intimate with a woman who was not his wife) that, suspecting that Lavan might trick him, he stipulated that whichever sister it was, he had in mind to betroth her.
According to the Chizkuni however, the moment he discovered it was Le'ah, he re-performed the Kidushin as you suggested.
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv
Eliezer Chrysler