1)

(a)What do we learn from ...

1. ... "b'Mo'ado" (mentioned in connection with the Tamid and the Pesach)?

2. ... "b'Mo'adeichem" (mentioned in connection with the other Yamim-Tovim)?

3. ... "Vayedaber Moshe es Mo'adei Hash-m El Bnei Yisrael"?

(b)Why can we not learn ...

1. ... all the other Korbanos from the Tamid and the Pesach?

2. ... the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem from the other Korbanos?

3. ... the other Korbanos from the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem?

1)

(a)We learn from

1. ... "b'Mo'ado" (mentioned in connection with the Tamid and the Pesach) - that they override Shabbos and Tum'ah.

2. ... "b'Mo'adeichem" (mentioned in connection with the other Yamim-Tovim) - that all other Korbenos Tzibur likewise override Shabbos and Tum'ah.

3. ... "Vayedaber Moshe es Mo'adei Hash-m El Bnei Yisrael" - that the same applies to the Omer plus the Korbanos that accompany it, and the Shtei ha'Lechem and the Korbanos that accompany them.

(b)We cannot learn ...

1. ... all the other Korbanos from the Tamid and the Pesach - since they each have a Chumra, the one is daily, the other carries with it a Chiyuv Kares.

2. ... the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem (which only come to permit Chadash, the former outside the Beis Hamikdash, the latter inside it) from the other Korbanos (which come to atone).

3. ... the other Korbanos from the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem - precisely because the latter come to permit (Chadash), whereas the former do not.

2)

(a)What does 'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi b'Tzibur' mean (as opposed to 'Tum'ah Hutrah Hi b'Tzibur')? What are the ramifications of this statement?

(b)Who is the only Tana to hold 'Tum'ah Hutrah Hi b'Tzibur'?

2)

(a)'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi b'Tzibur' means that the Torah only permits Tum'ah b'Tzibur with difficulty, because there are no Tehorim, and when there are no Tehorim. Consequently, it requires the Tzitz to atone for it.

(b)The only Tana to hold 'Tum'ah Hutrah Hi b'Tzibur' - is Rebbi Yehudah.

3)

(a)What does Rebbi Shimon prove from the Kohen Gadol on Yom Kipur (with regard to the Tzitz)?

(b)What does Rebbi Yehudah's reply?

(c)What does 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' mean?

(d)And who is the only Tana to hold 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos'?

3)

(a)Rebbi Shimon proves from the Kohen Gadol (who served in the Kodesh Kodshim on Yom Kipur wearing the four white garments - without the Tzitz) that the Tzitz atones even when it is not being worn (as opposed to Rebbi Yehudah who maintains that it only atones as long as the Kohen Gadol is actually wearing it).

(b)Rebbi Yehudah's replies that Yom Kipur (which is entirely Avodas Tzibur) is different, since 'Tum'ah Hutrah b'Tzibur (and does not therefore require the atonement of the Tzitz).

(c)'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' means - that the Tzitz atones even for the parts of the Korban that are eaten which became Tamei e.g. the flesh, to permit them to be eaten.

(d)The only Tana to hold 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' is Rebbi Elazar.

4)

(a)Assuming that our Stam Mishnah (which permits bringing the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem b'Tum'ah) holds 'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi b'Tzibur' and 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos', why does the Gemara think that the author could not then be Rebbi Yehoshua? What statement does Rebbi Yehoshua make which prompts the Gemara to say this?

4)

(a)Assuming that our Stam Mishnah (which permits bringing the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem b'Tum'ah) holds 'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi b'Tzibur' and 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' - the Gemara thinks that the author could not then be Rebbi Yehoshua, who says 'Im Ein Basar, Ein Dam'. Because, how could the Tana of our Mishnah then write Chamishah Devarim Ba'in b'Tum'ah? Since, according to him, the Tzitz does not atone for the parts of the Korban that are eaten, and if the parts that are eaten are not valid ('Im Ein Basar'), then neither is the blood ('Ein Dam')?

5)

(a)What does Rebbi Yehoshua learn from the Pasuk in Re'eh "v'Asisa Olosecha ha'Basar v'ha'Dam"?

(b)What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from the Pasuk there "v'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech"?

(c)What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Pasuk "v'Asisa Olosecha ha'Basar v'ha'Dam"?

(d)Why does Rebbi Yehoshua disagree with this Derashah?

5)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua learns from the Pasuk "v'Asisa Olosecha ha'Basar v'ha'Dam" - 'Im Ein Dam Ein Basar, Im Ein Basar Ein Dam'.

(b)Rebbi Eliezer learns from the Pasuk "v'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech" - 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar'.

(c)Rebbi Eliezer learns from "v'Asisa Olosecha ha'Basar v'ha'Dam" - that one throws the limbs of the Korban across the small space that divided the ramp from the Mizbe'ach, just as one throws (i.e. sprinkles) the blood.

(d)Rebbi Yehoshua disagrees with Rebbi Eliezer's Derashah because the Pasuk continues "v'ha'Basar Tochel". This prompts him to use the Pasuk to correlate the Basar with the Dam (as in 5a.), rather than to learn "v'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech" independently, as Rebbi Eliezer does.

77b----------------------------------------77b

6)

(a)According to Rebbi Yehoshua, we now have two Pesukim to teach us that both the blood and the flesh are required, one for an Olah and one for a Shelamim. Why would we not be able to learn ...

1. ... the Din by the Shelamim from that of the Olah?

2. ... the Din by the Olah from that of the Shelamim?

(b)What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Pasuk "v'ha'Basar Tochel"?

(c)Then how can he learn from the same Pasuk 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar', since we need the entire Pasuk for the previous Derashah?

6)

(a)We would not be able to learn that both the blood and the flesh are required ...

1. ... by the Shelamim from the Olah, according to Rebbi Yehoshua - because the Olah has the stringency that it is entirely burnt.

2. ... by the Olah from the Shelamim - for precisely the opposite reason; because by the Shelamim, there are two Achilos (Achilos Mizbe'ach and Achilas Be'alim) whereas by the Olah there is only one.

(b)Rebbi Eliezer learns from "v'ha'Basar Tochel" - that the meat only becomes permitted after the blood has been sprinkled.

(c)He learns 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar' from the same Pasuk as he learns the previous Derashah - because otherwise, the Torah should have written "ha'Basar Tochel, v'Dam Zevachecha Yishafech" (placing the Basar before the Dam, as it did in the Pasuk "v'Asisa Olosecha ha'Basar v'ha'Dam"). By reversing the order, it enables us to learn both Derashos.

7)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua learns that the meat is forbidden until the blood has been sprinkled from a Kal va'Chomer (from the Emurim). Which Kal va'Chomer?

(b)What does Rebbi Eliezer do with the Kal va'Chomer? Does he not hold of it?

7)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua learns that the meat is forbidden until the blood has been sprinkled, from a Kal va'Chomer from the Emurim (which do not render the Korban Pasul by their absence - yet when they are there, they must be brought before the rest of the Korban may be eaten); How much more so the blood, which does render the Korban Pasul by its when it is not there, must certainly be sprinkled before the Korban may be eaten.

(b)Rebbi Eliezer agrees with the Kal va'Chomer; only he says 'Milsa d'Asya b'Kal va'Chomer, Tarach v'Kasav Lah Kera' (whereas, in Rebbi Yehoshua's opinion, we only say this if there is no Derashah to make, but not if there is.)

8)

(a)We began the Sugya by contending that the author of our Mishnah (which permits Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur and the other cases in our Mishnah b'Tum'ah, even though they are not eaten) cannot be Rebbi Yehoshua. How do we reconcile at least Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur with Rebbi Yehoshua?

(b)The original contention remains however, by the Omer and the Shtei ha'Lechem. The Shtei ha'Lechem are completely eaten (and cannot at this stage conform with Rebbi Yehoshua's opinion). The Omer though, has a Kemitzah taken from it, which is brought on the Mizbe'ach. Why is this not equivalent to the Emurim, so that the Omer could go like Rebbi Yehoshua, too?

8)

(a)We reconcile at least Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur with Rebbi Yehoshua - by saying that he holds "Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin'.

(b)The Kemitzah of the Omer is comparable to the blood of a regular Korban (since, like the blood, it is given to Hash-m). However, there are no leftovers to go on the Mizbe'ach - like the Emurin of a Korban, and Rebbi Yehoshua requires leftovers, besides the blood.

9)

(a)We then try to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehoshua, by differentiating between Zevachim and Menachos. What does this mean?

(b)We reject this however, on the basis of the Mishnah in Menachos 'Nitme'u Shireha ... k'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua, Pesulah'. What is the Gemara proving from there?

(c)We also reject it on the basis of a Beraisa (which will be explained in detail later), where Rebbi Yosi discusses the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua. What does Rebbi Yosi say there that forces us to retract from the statement in a.?

9)

(a)So we try to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehoshua by differentiating between Zevachim and Menachos: Zevachim, which consist of three parts, require blood and Emurim to remain; Menachos, which do not have Emurim to begin with, do not require that Emurim remain.

(b)We reject this however, on the basis of the Mishnah in Menachos 'Nitme'u Shireha ... k'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua, Pesulah' - meaning that according to Rebbi Yehoshua, who holds 'Im Ein Basar, Ein Dam', if the rest of the Minchah (after the Kemitzah has been taken) becomes Tamei, the Minchah is Pasul. This proves that Yehoshua does not differentiate between Zevachim and Menachos.

(c)Rebbi Yosi says in the Beraisa 'Ro'eh Ani es Divrei Rebbi Eliezer bi'Menachos u'vi'Zevachim, v'Divrei Rebbi Yehoshua b'Zevachim u'vi'Menachos. In any event, we see that Rebbi Yehoshua argues with Rebbi Eliezer by Menachos as well as by Zevachim.

10)

(a)We then try to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehoshua, by saying that he too, holds 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin v'Al ha'Achilos' (like Rebbi Eliezer). In that case, what does the Mishnah in Menachos mean when it says 'Nitme'u Shireha, Avdu Shireha ... k'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua Pesulah'? If Tzitz Meratzeh, why should it be Pasul?

(b)Based on the fact that the Mishnah in Menachos mentions 'Nitme'u Shireha', as well as 'Avdu' (or Nisrefu), the Gemara rejects this explanation, too. Why can we not say that the Tana mentions Nitme'u because of Rebbi Eliezer (who holds that it is Kasher - since he holds 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar')?

(c)What second proof does the Gemara bring to reject the suggestion that according to Rebbi Yehoshua, 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin v'Al ha'Achilos'?

10)

(a)If Rebbi Yehoshua too, holds 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin v'Al ha'Achilos' - then when the Mishnah in Menachos says 'Nitme'u Shireha, Avdu Shireha ... k'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua Pesulah', it refers, not to Nitme'u, but to Avdu (or Nisrefu), since the Tzitz only atones for the Pesul of Tum'ah, but not for that of other Pesulim.

(b)As far as Rebbi Eliezer is concerned, the Tana would not need to mention that 'Nitme'u' is Kasher - because if Avdu (where the Shirayim are not there, is Kasher) how much more so Nitme'u (where they are)! So the Tana must mention Nitme'u, to teach us that even Nitme'u is Pasul according to Rebbi Yehoshua, refuting the contention that 'ke'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua, Pasul', refers only to 'Avud' (and 'Saruf', but not to 'Nitme'u').

(c)The second proof (to reject the suggestion that according to Rebbi Yehoshua 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al ha'Olin v'Al ha'Achilos') - is from the Beraisa, which quotes Rebbi Yehoshua as saying 'Kol ha'Zevachim she'ba'Torah, Bein she'Nitma Basar v'Chelev Kayam ... Zorek es ha'Dam. Aval Nitme'u Tarvayhu, Lo', which teaches us that, according to Rebbi Yehoshua, 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Lo Al ha'Olin v'Lo Al ha'Achilos.

11)

(a)We then try to establish our Mishnah even like Rebbi Yehoshua by distinguishing between l'Chatchilah and b'Di'eved. What does this mean?

(b)How do we know that Rebbi Yehoshua, on principle, makes such a distinction?

(c)We refute this answer however, on the basis of the above-mentioned Mishnah in Menachos 'ke'Midas Rebbi Yehoshua Pesulah (implying even b'Di'eved). How do we further refute it from the expression used in our Mishnah 'Chamishah Devarim Ba'in b'Tum'ah'?

(d)How do we finally reconcile our Mishnah with Rebbi Yehoshua ?

11)

(a)Perhaps our Mishnah does indeed go like Rebbi Yehoshua. True, Rebbi Yehoshua requires two leftovers, even by Menachos. However, that is only l'Chatchilah, but b'Di'eved, even one will suffice - conforming with the Tana of our Mishnah.

(b)We know that Rebbi Yehoshua, on principle, makes such a distinction - from the Beraisa, where he says 'Nitma Basar O she'Nifsal O she'Yatza Chutz li'Kela'im ... Rebbi Yehoshua Omer, Lo Yizrok ... u'Modeh ... she'Im Zarak, Hurtzah'.

(c)'Chamishah Devarim Ba'in b'Tum'ah' - implies l'Chatchilah, so how can we establish it be b'Di'eved in order to establish it like Rebbi Yehoshua?

(d)We finally reconcile our Mishnah with Rebbi Yehoshua (at the same time as resolving the contradiction that we just created in Rebbi Yehoshua's own words) - by establishing Rebbi Yehoshua by a Korban Yachid (which he invalidates l'Chatchilah without Shirayim) but Kasher b'Di'eved (because of Ritzuy Tzitz); whereas our Mishnah, (which relies on Ritzuy Tzitz even l'Chatchilah) is speaking about a Korban Tzibur.

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