1)

(a)To answer the Kashya on Rav Huna, we try to establish the Beraisa (neither like Rebbi Yossi in the Mishnah nor like the Rabbanan, but) like Rebbi. What does Rebbi say about someone who Shechts one of the Kivsei Atzeres with the (verbalized) intention of eating half a k'Zayis of each of the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, Chutz li'Zemano?

(b)What can we extrapolate from the Shochet's words?

(c)Bearing in mind the Machlokes between Rebbi Yossi and the Rabbanan, what is the problem with Rebbi's statement mi'Mah Nafshach?

(d)We answer by establishing Rebbi like the Rabbanan, and amending the wording (from 'Eino Chayav ad she'Yefagel *bi'Sheteihem*') to ' ... ad she'Yefagel bi'Sheneihem'. What do we mean by that?

1)

(a)To answer the Kashya on Rav Huna, we try to establish the Beraisa (neither like Rebbi Yossi in the Mishnah nor like the Rabbanan, but like) Rebbi, who rules that if someone Shechts one of the Kivsei Atzeres with the (verbalized) intention of eating half a k'Zayis of each of the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, Chutz li'Zemano - the lambs are Kasher (because this constitutes only a half a Machshavah on half a Matir).

(b)We can extrapolate from the words used by the Shochet that - if he were to say one k'Zayis from the two loaves, it would be Pigul.

(c)Bearing in mind the Machlokes between Rebbi Yossi and the Rabbanan, the problem with Rebbi's statement is mi'Mah Nafshach - if Rebbi holds like the Rabbanan, then even a Machshavah on one of the loaves ought to suffice, whereas if he holds Like Rebbi Yossi, the Kashya on Rav Huna (that we are currently trying to circumvent) returns.

(d)We answer by establishing Rebbi like the Rabbanan, and amending the wording (from 'Eino Chayav ad she'Yefagel *bi'Sheteihen*') to ' ... ad she'Yefagel bi'Sheneihem' - meaning, that the words 'both of them' refer, not to the loaves (where a Machshavah on one of them would indeed suffice), but to the lambs, because the Rabbanan hold Ein Mefaglin be'Chatzi Matir.

2)

(a)And the Beraisa comes to preclude the opinion of Rebbi Meir. What does Rebbi Meir say?

(b)According to the Rabbanan (who hold Ein Mefaglin be'Chatzi Matir) why is Pigul applicable to a case of ha'Kometz es ha'Minchah, even though it is not applicable to ...

1. ... ha'Maktir es ha'Kometz?

2. ... ha'Shochet Echad min ha'Kevasim?

(c)The current Beraisa opens with the word Le'olam. What does it imply?

(d)What problem do we then have in establishing the Beraisa like the Rabbanan of Rebbi Meir? Why would it be better to establish it like Rebbi Yossi?

2)

(a)And the Beraisa comes to preclude the opinion of Rebbi Meir, who holds - Mefaglin be'Chatzi Matir.

(b)According to the Rabbanan (who hold Ein Mefaglin be'Chatzi Matir) Pigul is applicable to a case of ha'Kometz es ha'Minchah, even though it is not applicable to ...

1. ... ha'Maktir es ha'Kometz - because whereas Haktarah pertains to the Levonah too (rendering the Kometz a Chatzi Matir), Kemitzah does not.

2. ... ha'Shochet Echad min ha'Kevasim - because, whereas the former is a complete Avodah (seeing as Kometz does not apply to the Levonah, as we just explained), the latter is only half an Avodah, seeing as both lambs require Shechitah.

(c)The current Beraisa opens with the word Le'olam implying that - the Tana is coming to teach us a big Chidush, one which precludes from various opinions).

(d)In that case, the problem in establishing the Beraisa like the Rabbanan is that - the only Chidush lies in the word 'bi'Sheneihem', which comes to preclude from Rebbi Meir; whereas if we were to leave the Beraisa intact, and establish it like Rebbi Yossi (despite the Kashya on Rav Huna), then it would be coming to preclude from both Rebbi Meir (regarding Chatzi Matir) and the Rabbanan (regarding the Sh'tei ha'Lechem).

3)

(a)Furthermore, Rav Ashi queries our interpretation of the Beraisa (to accommodate Rav Huna), from another Beraisa, which discusses Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin. Where ...

1. ... are Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin Shechted?

2. ... is their leftover blood poured?

(b)What does Rebbi Elazar Mishum Rebbi Yossi rule in the case of a Kohen who Shechts Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin with the intention of pouring their blood on to the Y'sod or of burning the Emurim on the Mizbe'ach the next day?

(c)What will be the Din on the other hand, if the Kohen ...

1. ... Shechts Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin with the intention of sprinkling their blood on the following day?

2. ... sprinkles their blood with the intention of pouring their blood on to the Y'sod the next day?

(d)In this very first case, it cannot be the blood that becomes Pigul, because of a Mishnah in Zevachim. What briefly, does the Mishnah in Zevachim say?

3)

(a)Furthermore, Rav Ashi queries our interpretation of the Beraisa (to accommodate Rav Huna), from another Beraisa, which discusses Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin ...

1. ... which are Shechted - in the Azarah.

2. ... whose leftover blood is poured - on the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon.

(b)Rebbi Elazar in the name of Rebbi Yossi rules in the case of a Kohen who Shechts Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin with the intention of pouring their blood on to the Y'sod or of burning the Emurim on the Mizbe'ach the next day that - the Korban is Pigul (because a Machsheves Chutz by an Avodas Chutz is valid).

(c)If, on the other hand, the Kohen ...

1. ... Shechts Parim u'Se'irim ha'Nisrafin with the intention of sprinkling their blood the next day - the Korban is Kasher, and the same will apply if he ...

2. ... sprinkles their blood with the intention of pouring the Sheyarei ha'Dam on to the Y'sod the next day - because he does not consider a Machsheves P'nim during an Avodas Chutz and a Machsheves Chutz during an Avodas P'nim, to be valid.

(d)In the very first case, it cannot be the blood that becomes Pigul, because of a Mishnah in Zevachim, which states that - only something that has a Matir (such as the Sheyarei Minchah, or the Emurim and the Basar of Zevachim is subject to Pigul, but not something that is a Matir itself (such as the blood of a Zevach).

4)

(a)If, in the previous case, it is not the blood that becomes Pigul, what is it that does?

(b)Bearing in mind that the author of this Beraisa is Rebbi Yossi, what is now the Kashya on Rav Huna?

4)

(a)In the previous case, it is not the blood that becomes Pigul (as we explained, but - the Basar.

(b)Bearing in mind that the author of this Beraisa is Rebbi Yossi, the Kashya on Rav Huna is that - if Pigul on the Dam extends to the Basar, then how much more so will it extend from one thigh to the other?

5)

(a)Ravina asks a similar Kashya on Rav Huna from another Beraisa. What does Rebbi Yossi there rule in a case where a Kohen performs Kemitzah on a Minchah having in mind to eat the Shirayim or to sacrifice the Kometz on the following day?

(b)Why can the last case not refer to a person who eats the Kemitzah?

(c)Then what *does* it refer to?

(d)What have we now categorically proved?

5)

(a)Ravina asks a similar Kashya on Rav Huna from another Beraisa, where Rebbi Yossi concedes that if a Kohen performs Kemitzah on a Minchah, having in mind to eat the Shirayim or to sacrifice the Kometz on the following day - it is Pigul, and whoever eats it is Chayav Kareis.

(b)The last case cannot refer to a person who eats the Kometz - because the same Mishnah in Zevachim, which precludes Dam from the Chiyuv of Pigul, also precludes the Kometz (which is also a Matir).

(c)It must therefore refer to - the Shirayim.

(d)This proves categorically that - two components of the same Korban, such as the Kometz and the Shirayim, the Dam and the Basar, and certainly the two thighs, are considered one entity regarding Pigul.

6)

(a)Having proved Rav Huna wrong, how does Rebbi Yochanan now explain the apparent discrepancy between Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, who considers the Sh'tei ha'Lechem as two entities, and in the Beraisa, where he combines the two as if they were one?

(b)What does Rebbi Yossi now learn from the Pasuk in Emor ...

1. ... "Tavi'u Lechem Tenufah" (see Tosfos DH 'ha'Kasuv')?

2. ... "Shetayim, Sh'nei Esronim"?

(c)And what does Rebbi Yochanan mean when he concludes ...

1. ... Arvinhu, Mis'arvin?

2. ... Palginhu, Mifl'gi?

6)

(a)Having proved Rav Huna wrong, Rebbi Yochanan now explains the apparent discrepancy between Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, who considers the Sh'tei ha'Lechem as two entities, and in the Beraisa, where he combines the two as if they were one - by Darshening from two Pesukim that they do indeed contain both specifications: they are one entity inasmuch as they are both crucial, and they are two - inasmuch as they are prepared separately.

(b)Rebbi Yossi now learns from the Pasuk in Emor ...

1. ... "Tavi'u Lechem Tenufah" that - the two loaves are one entity (see Tosfos DH 'ha'Kasuv').

2. ... "Shetayim, Sh'nei Esronim" that - they are two entities.

(c)And what Rebbi Yochanan then means when he concludes ...

1. ... Arvinhu, Mis'arvin is that - if the Kohen said 'K'zayis bein Sh'teihen ... ', then they are both Pigul (since the Torah made them one entity).

2. ... Palginhu, Mifl'gi is that - if he said 'al-M'nas Le'echol es ha'Achas ... ', then only that one is Pigul (Seeing as the Torah divided them).

14b----------------------14b

7)

(a)What does Rebbi Yochanan mean when he asks ...

1. ... Pigal be'Lachmei Todah, Mahu?

2. ... be'Ma'afeh Tanur, Mahu? What causes him to ask such a She'eilah?

(b)In response, Rav Tachlifa from Eretz Yisrael, quoted Rebbi Yochanan a Beraisa. What does the Beraisa say?

7)

(a)When Rebbi Yochanan asks ...

1. ... Pigal be'Lachmei Todah, Mahu, he means to ask - whether, seeing as the Lachmei Todah too, contain four different kinds of loaves, Rebbi Yossi will also argue with the Rabbanan, and confine Pigul to the one which the Kohen specifically had in mind, or whether here he will concede to the Rabbanan that it is all considered one Korban.

2. ... be'Ma'afeh Sanur Mahu, he means to ask - the same She'eilah regarding a Minchas Ma'afeh Tanur, which contains two different kinds of loaves.

(b)In response, Rav Tachlifa from Eretz Yisrael quoted Rebbi Yochanan a Beraisa, which states - 've'Chein Atah Omer be'Lachmei Todah, ve'Chein Atah Omer be'Minchas Ma'afeh'.

8)

(a)What does the Beraisa say about a Kohen who things during the Shechitah to eat half a k'Zayis of Basar, and during the Zerikah, to eat another half?

(b)Some say that the same will not apply to a Machshavah of half a k'Zayis by the Kabalas ha'Dam, and half, by the Holachah. Why is that?

(c)What do others say?

8)

(a)The Beraisa rules that if a Kohen thought during the Shechitah to eat half a k'Zayis of Basar, and during the Zerikah, to eat another half - the Korban is Pigul, because Shechitah and Zerikah combine.

(b)Some say that the same will not apply to a Machshavah of half a k'Zayis by the Kabalas ha'Dam, and half, by the Holachah - because it is only Shechitah and Zerikah, which are both Matirin, that combine, but not Kabalah and Holachah, which are not.

(c)Others say that - Kabalah and Holachah also combine.

9)

(a)We query all this from a Beraisa, quoted by Levi. What does the Tana say there about the four Avodos, Shechitah, Zerikah, Kabalah and Holachah?

(b)Rava establishes the first Beraisa like the Rabbanan, and the second, like Rebbi. What does Rebbi say about someone who Shechts one of the Kivsei Atzeres, having in mind to eat half a k'Zayis of one of the two loaves, and the other Keves, having in mind to eat a half a k'Zayis of the other loaf?

(c)On what grounds does Abaye query Rava? In what way does Rebbi's ruling differ from the case under discussion?

(d)What makes Shechitah and Zerikah a complete Matir, more than each of the two lambs?

9)

(a)We query all this from a Beraisa, quoted by Levi, where the Tana rules that the four Avodos, Shechitah, Zerikah, Kabalah and Holachah - do not combine to create Pigul.

(b)Rava establishes the first Beraisa like the Rabbanan, and the second, like Rebbi, who says that - if someone Shechts one of the Kivsei Atzeres having in mind to eat half a k'Zayis of one of the two loaves, and the other Keves, having in mind to eat a half a k'Zayis of the other loaf - they do not combine.

(c)Abaye claims however, that Rebbi's ruling differs from the case under discussion in that - whereas the latter is a case of Kulo Matir va'Chatzi Zayis, that of Rebbi is one of Chatzi Matir and Chatzi Zayis.

(d)What makes Shechitah and Zerikah a complete Matir, more than each of the two lambs is the fact that - Shechitah is Matir the Dam, and Zerikah the Basar.

10)

(a)How does Rava bar Rav Chanan attempt to answer this question? Why in fact, ought there to be no difference between a Kulo Matir and a Chatzi Matir?

(b)And he bases this on rulings by Rebbi Yossi and the Rabbanan. What does he say about them both?

(c)What does he prove from the opening Mishnah in the Perek ...

1. ... Lehaktir Levonasah le'Machar, Rebbi Yossi Omer Pasul ve'Ein Bo Kareis?

2. ... 'Pigal be'Kometz ve'Lo bi'Levonah, bi'Levonah ve'Lo be'Kometz ... va'Chachamim Omrim, Ein bo Kareis ad she'Yefagel be'Chol ha'Matir? What does this imply?

10)

(a)Rava bar Rav Chanan attempts to answer this question on the grounds that - if Rebbi would hold Pigul by Kulo Matir, then he would issue a decree to invalidate Chatzi Matir.

(b)And he bases this on rulings by Rebbi Yossi and the Rabbanan - both of whom issue similar decrees, rendering Pasul cases that resemble those of Pigul.

(c)He proves from the opening Mishnah in the Perek ...

1. ... Lehaktir Levonasah le'Machar, Rebbi Yossi Omer, Pasul ve'Ein bo Kareis' that - Rebbi Yossi decrees Lehaktir Kometz de'Levonah on account of Lehaktir Kometz de'Minchah.

2. ... Pigal be'Kometz ve'Lo bi'Levonah, bi'Levonah ve'Lo be'Kometz ... va'Chachamim Omrim, Ein bo Kareis ad she'Yefagel be'Chol ha'Matir (implying that there is no Pigul, but that it is Pasul) that - the Rabbanan decree Kometz de'Minchah on account of Kometz de'Minchas Chotei, and Levonah de'Minchah on account of Levonah de'Bazichin.

11)

(a)But Abaye rejects Rava bar Rav Chanan's Kashya. We explained why Rebbi Yossi decreed above in the case of the Kometz de'Levonah, and the Rabbanan in the case of Kometz and Levonah de'Minchah. On what grounds will the Rabbanan decree in a Mishnah later, to render Pasul a Machshavah on one Keves to eat the two loaves the next day, and on one Bazach, to eat the two rows of Lechem ha'Panim the next day?

(b)Then why should Rebbi not also decree in the case of Keves Echad and Chatzi Zayis?

(c)The Mishnah later concludes that the Rabbanan concede to Rebbi Meir that in the case of a Minchas Chotei and a Minchas Kena'os, Pigal be'Kometz renders the Minchah Pigul, and whoever eats it is Chayav Kareis. What is the problem with this statement?

(d)What do we therefore prove from the fact that the Tana deems fit to mention it?

11)

(a)But Abaye rejects Rava bar Rav Chanan's Kashya. We explained why Rebbi Yossi decreed above in the case of the Kometz di'Levonah, and the Rabbanan in the case of Kometz and Levonah de'Minchah. The Rabbanan, in a later Mishnah, will issue a decree rendering Pasul a Machshavah on one Keves to eat the two loaves the next day, and on one Bazach, to eat the two rows of Lechem ha'Panim the next day - on account of the second Keves and the second Bazach.

(b)There is no reason though, for Rebbi to similarly decree in the case of Keves Echad and Chatzi Zayis - since there is no other case of Chatzi Matir and Chatzi Achilah which is subject to Pigul, on whose account he might decree.

(c)The Mishnah later concludes that the Rabbanan concede to Rebbi Meir that in the case of a Minchas Chotei and a Minchas Kena'os, Pigal be'Kometz renders the Minchah Pigul, and whoever eats it is Chayav Kareis. The problem with this statement is that - seeing as there is no other Matir, it seems obvious that this is a standard case of Pigul, so why does the Tana find it necessary to mention it? ...

(d)... and the fact that the Tana deems fit to mention it - proves that the Rabbanan's reason for rendering Pasul Pigal be'Kometz ve'Lo bi'Levonah in the Reisha is due to a decree on account of a Minchas Chotei, as we just explained.

12)

(a)If one of the Sh'tei ha'Lechem or of the rows of Lechem ha'Panim became Tamei, Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah rules that both loaves and rows must go to the Beis ha'Sereifah. Why is that?

(b)What do the Chachamim say?

(c)How does Rebbi Elazar qualify the Machlokes? In which case will Rebbi Yehudah concede that only the Tamei loaf is burned?

(d)Rav Papa establishes the basis of their Machlokes as to whether the Tzitz atones for Achilos (the Rabbanan) or not (Rebbi Yehudah). What does this mean? Why are the Kohanim then not permitted to eat even the loaf that became Tamei?

12)

(a)If one of the Sh'tei ha'Lechem or of the rows of Lechem ha'Panim became Tamei, Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah rules that both loaves and rows must go to the Beis ha'Sereifah - because he holds Ein Korban Tzibur Chaluk (a Korban Tzibur cannot be divided into two), in which case, either the loaves are all eaten or they are all burned).

(b)The Chachamim - permit the Kohanim to eat the second loaf and the second row (because they hold Korban Tzibur Chaluk).

(c)Rebbi Elazar explains that - in the event that the loaf became Tamei after the Zerikas ha'Dam, Rebbi Yehudah will concede that only *it* is burned.

(d)Rav Papa establishes the basis of their Machlokes as to whether the Tzitz atones for Achilos (the Rabbanan) or not (Rebbi Yehudah). This means - that, according to the Rabbanan, the Tzitz worn by the Kohen Gadol atones for the Korban that became Pasul through Tum'ah, permitting the Kohanim to eat it, but not the loaf which is actually Tamei, since the Tzitz does not have the power to remove the La'av of eating Kodshim be'Tum'ah.

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