One answer of the Gemorah is that R' Shimon learns "sof Tumah" from "Techilas Tumah" and the Rabanan reject his argument and distinguish by saying "hasam gavrah bechezkas taharh kai"? Does R' Shimon's limud from "Techilas Tumah", and the Rabbanan's "hasam", refer to when a person- who goes to the mikvah for "sof tumah"- originally (i.e., "techilah") touched the object that made him "Tameh" (as "mashma from Rashi in D"H "gamar sof Tumah") OR to a "sotah"- in which case the Rabanan's reference to "gavrah" (in masculine) has to be explained to stil be referring to a woman- the "sotah". The Artscroll Gemorah explanation writers chose the latter (i.e., "Sotah") and I'm not sure why, especially since Rashi seems to say otherwise.
Daniel Gray, Toronto, Canada
As you mention, Sof Tum'ah is Tevilah. Otherwise, the Gemara's logic does not work. Sotah is Techilas Tum'ah, although Tosfos offers a different case for Techilas Tum'ah.
How do you reconcile your answer that the definition of Techilas Tum'ah is Sotah with Rashi (3a) in D"H "gamar sof
Tumah" who states that Techilas Tum'ah refers to when the person originally (i.e., "techilah") touched the object that made him "Tameh"
Techilas Maga Tum'ah and Sotah are the same -- the Safek is whether the person became Tamei. This is in contrast to Sof Tum'ah where the question is whether the person became Tahor.