Shalom. According to his mehalech that psul yotzei of shamnunis pasuls the dam only after kabala, the Shas could have also asked on the hava amina why is it posul if he cut the leg off after shechita?
Yzf, Toronto
This is a very important question and I will try to suggest an answer bs'd. If one looks carefully at the Zecher Yitzchak #47, one sees that he writes that immediately at the start of Kabalah, it is considered that "Avodah" has commenced in the entire animal. The Zecher Yitzchak stresses that immediately when Kabalah starts there is a Pesul of Yotzei. According to this, we can say that this does not contradict what Rashi writes (end of Zevachim 25b, DH Shochet), that once the animal is slaughtered, the blood of the legs becomes Pasul because of Yotzei. This is because, in practical terms, the slaughtering of the animal -- and the receiving of its blood -- happen almost simultaneously. (Apart from the fact that this is fairly obvious, I would just mention that Rashi earlier (4a, DH v'Hikrivu) writes that we know that the word "v'Hikrivu" used in Vayikra 1:5 must mean Kabalah because it is written after Shechitah. The Hashmatos to Shitah Mekubetzes #5, printed at the end of the Gemara, writes that Kabalah takes place immediately after Shechitah.) Therefore, if he cut off the leg after Shechitah, in practical terms this means that by the time he cut off the leg, Kabalah had already started. It is impossible to cut off the leg so quickly after Shechitah that Kabalah has not yet started.
Kol Tuv,
Dovid Bloom
Nu The first Rashi on 26a discusses cutting the leg between shechita and kabala - something (virtually) impossible according to your mehalech. Rashi on 25b is probably not such a problem because maybe The zecher yitzchok's vort wouldn't work in the hava amina, en hachi nami. It wouldn't be so shver to say that he's only saying the mehalech l'maskonas hashas. Which then would solve my original problem...
Very good.
I was thinking myself of answering that the Zecher Yitzchak was only speaking according to the Maskanah. I saw that the Hebrew Artscroll Gemara cites a number of Achronim, including the Rashash to Me'ilah 8b, that the Gemara changes between the Havah Amina and the Maskanah. Then I had my idea about Kabalah being immediately after Shechitah, which I thought would make a more interesting Terutz. I think it might still be possible to cut off the leg between Shechitah and Kabalah if somebody is waiting there especially to do so immediately after the Shechitah.
Kol Tuv,
Dovid Bloom
Y"yasher kochacha. So only 68 more m'halchim to go...
Actually, the R'shash in Meilah seems to learn that l'maskana of R' Chisda amar Avimi (that he's only cutting to the bone), the gemora goes back to being m'chalek between before and after shechita, and R' Chisda b'shem Avimi only said "kibel" because of shigra d"lishna. (Notwithstanding the tertz the Shita (3) gives over here to that problem) - anyways it is already clear that the R'shash over here doesn't hold like the zecher Yitzchok because he basically asks his question and doesn't answer that way.
But we do see in the Lechem Mishna that the Rashash in Meilah quotes (Pesulai hamukdashim 1:14) that the gemora had additional kashos on the hava amina of being m'chalek between before and after shechita (he's talking about the p'sul of the animal not being kulo bifnim for shechita) and that it why the gemora doesn't go back to be m'chalek between before and after shechita, even after R' Chisda amar Avimi.
So, we could say a similar mehalech according to the zecher Yitzchok - that the gemora really had our question on the hava amina but adifa mineh porich. And l'maskana, the gemora didn't go back to being m'chalek between before and after shechita because of the vort of the Zera Yitzchok gufa.
By the way, the more I think about it, the more difficult it is to say that after shechita (virtually) automatically means the kabala started - because as long as there is dam hanefesh the kohen should still be able to do kabala, even if the first blood spilled on the floor. (I think that's correct.) So actually, it is not difficult to find a case where one could cut the leg between shechita and kabala - ie if the kohen didn't even start the kabala until after cutting the leg. - The main point being that it is very difficult to say Rashi in 25B means after kabala started.
1. The Zecher Yitzchak writes that immediately at the beginning of Kabalah, the blood becomes Pasul because of Yotzei. Therefore, I am not sure if it would help if the Kohen is Mekabel the Dam ha'Nefesh later on.
2. It may be that the Gemara would not want to suggest a scenario where the first blood spilled on the floor and the Kohen later received the Dam ha'Nefesh because, at least according to Rashi, Kabalah is supposed to be done very soon after Shechitah. This is stated by Rashi (4a, DH v'Hikrivu), according to the understanding of the Shitah Mekubetzes, Hashmatos #5, which I cited in my first reply, who says that Kabalah takes place immediately after Shechitah. It is true that Tosfos (Zevachim 13a, DH Atah) does not seem to agree with Rashi on this, but, on the other hand, Tosfos in Meilah (2a, end of DH Shochtan) writes that Shechitah and Kabalah are consecutive. For this reason, Tosfos writes that it is impossible to be so precise to have Shechitah right at the end of the night and Kabalah first thing in the next morning. Tosfos is saying that it is impossible to separate Shechitah from Kabalah.
Kol Tuv,
Dovid Bloom