In Ta'anis 4:2 talking about R. Yehudah's Shita in the mishnah who says "Shoalin Es Hageshamim Ad Sheya'avor Hapesach" Rav Yosef explains that he means Ad Sheyaavor the Shachris Chazzan on the first day of Pesach. Abaye then asks "Do we then say Shaalo on Yom Tov?" Rav Yosef answers "Yes the Meturgaman" then the Gemara knocks down that answer.
My question is: why did Rav Yosef (or anyone else) not answer that it can happen because if someone, by mistake, said a weekday Shmone Esrei and reached Borech Aleinu he would still ask for rain?
Similarly, the Gemara could have used that answer for later on this Amud where it asked "Didn't R. Yochanan say Bemokom Sheshoail Mazkir?"
Meir Zirkind, Weston FL USA
Dear Meir,
I think the simple answer to both of your questions is that Rav Yosef, Rebbi Yochanan, and the Gemara are searching for routine l'Chatchilah situations, not unusual b'Di'eved ones. When the Beraisa -- which Rav Yosef is trying to explain -- says, "Ad she'Ya'avor ha'Pesach" (which Rav Yosef interprets to mean that the Chazan of Shacharis asks for rain but the Chazan of Musaf does not), it is giving a procedural rule of davening, not a description of a possible occurence. When Rav Yosef says that the Meturgeman asks for rain he is not saying that this is a possible occurence. Rather, he is saying that that is how things are routinely done. Therefore, the answer that it could happen (in the way you describe) would not have been an acceptable answer.
b'Chavod,
Yonasan Sigler
This is not a Psak Halachah