1)

Why does the Torah write "Ki Solid Banim ,,, " and not 'Im solid Baanim', conveying the impression that it is referring to something that is bound to happen?

1.

Ramban: Because the current Pasuk serves a dual purpose

2)

What is the significance of "Banim u'Venei Banim"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Moshe was not concerned about the current generation who witnessed first-hand all the miracles in the desert or about their children who had either witnessed it themselves or had heard it from their parents. He was worried about the third generation straying from the path - who would have no more connection to the miracles of the desert, and whom the Satan would make every effort to lead astray, to prevent them from attaining a Chazakah and of therefore being assured of remaining devoted to Hashem and the Torah forever. 1


1

Refer to 4:4:9:4:5 and note.

3)

What are the connotations of the words "ve'Noshantem ba'Aretz ... "?

1.

Rashi: It is a hint that Yisrael will go into exile 1 after eight hundred and fifty-two years (the Gematriya of ve'Noshantem).

2.

Ramban: It implies that, once they have been a long time in the land and feel secure, the likelihood exists that they will forget Hashem and start turning to other gods.

3.

Da'as Zekenim: It comes to preclude from the notion that, when they have been in the land for a long time, they will be able to sin without retribution (exile - Hadar Zekenim).


1

Ramban: This hints at the first exile - Galus Bavel.

4)

Seeing as Yisrael was destined to go into Galus eight hundred and fifty-two years after entering Eretz Yisrael why were they exiled after eight hundred and fifty years?

1.

Rashi: In order to prevent the fulfillment of "Ki Avod Toveidun" 1 (in the next Pasuk). 2


1

Moshav Zekenim: Bayis Rishon was built four hundred and eighty years after Yetzi'as Egypt (Melachim 1 6:1). The Pasuk discusses how long they were in the land, from which we deduct the forty years in the desert.

2

Rashi: Hashem performed with us Tzedakah by sending us out before the designated time - as intimated in Daniel. 9:14.

5)

Why does the Pasuk not add 'Va'avadtem oso'?

1.

Ramban: Because it is talking about making images and not about worshiping them. 1


1

Ramban: As the Torah discussed in Pasuk 15 - Refer to 4:15:1:1.

6)

Why does the Pasuk add "Va'asisem ha'Ra ... "?

1.

Ibn Ezra: With reference to other Mitzvos that they would contravene - such as murder and adultery.

7)

What are the connotations of "Va'asisem ha'Ra ... Lehach'iso"?

1.

Seforno: They will sin in order to remove the Shechinah from Yisrael, so as not to be subservient to the Torah of Hashem and to His Mitzvos.

2.

It implies that they will sin Lehach'is (to anger Hashem), and not le'Te'avon (for pleasure).

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