What does "Zos ha'Aretz" come to preclude?
Rashbam: It comes to preclude the lands 1 that Hashem added to the Shevu'ah that He made to Avraham
The Keini, Kenizi and Kadmoni - See Rashbam here and refer to Bereishis, 15:19:1:1*.
Why does the Torah insert the words "Leimor"?
Rashi: To instruct Moshe to go and inform the Avos that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu had kept the promise that He made to them. 1
Rashi: In fact, Hashem is telling him that that is why He is showing him the land now - in advance, but were it not for the decree prohibiting him from crossing the Yarden to enter it, He would have waited until he had seen the people actually established in the land before passing on the information to the Avos.
Why did Hashem show Moshe the land?
Rashi #1: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Rashi #2: Refer to 32:52:2:1.
Ramban: Knowing Moshe's intense love for Eretz Yisrael, Hashem showed him the land in all its goodness in order to make him happy.
Seforno: In order to bless it. 1
Refer to Bamidbar 27:13:152:1,2 & 4.
We find that some of his B'rachos pertain to that Shevet's portion in Eretz Yisrael - "u'mi'Meged Tevu'os Shamesh" (33:14). (PF)
Why did Hashem add "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"?
Rashi: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Seforno: Refer to 34:4:3:3. Because had Moshe entered Eretz Yisrael, his B'rachah would have prevented it from ever being destroyed. 1
Bamidbar Rabah (23:5): Moshe was worried lest he go to Gehinom. Hashem assured him that he would not.
Seforno: Whereas the decree had already been issued that when their measure was full, they would go into exile - See for example, Devarim 30:18 and Devarim 31:16. Refer also to Bamidbar 20:12:3:2*.
Why does it say here "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"? Above (32:52), it says "ve'Shamah Lo Savo"!
Sifri (Ha'azinu 341): Moshe said, if I cannot enter Eretz Yisrael as king, may I enter as a commoner! If I cannot enter alive, may I enter it dead! Hashem told him, "ve'Shamah Lo Savo", "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"
