1)

Why is "Banav" written (in the singular) without a 'Yud'?

1.

Rashi: Because it is referrring to Sichon's son 1 who was as strong as he was. 2


1

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2

The Rosh gave the same explanation regarding Og. Refer to Bamidbar 21:35:151:1 and note.

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