Why does the Torah use the passive term "Ki Yimacher l'cha Achicha ... "?
Rashi and Rashbam: Because it is referring to someone who was sold as an Eved Ivri by Beis-Din because he stole and was unable to pay. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 40.
What are the implications of the words "Ki Yimacher l'cha Achicha"?
Refer to Sh'mos 21:2:2:1 and note.
Sifri: "L'cha" implies that, when Beis-Din sell the Eved Ivri (who cannot pay for his theft) they must sell him to a Yisrael - and not to a Nochri..
What are the ramifications of the Hekesh between Eved Ivri and Amah Ivriyah?
Kidushin, 14b: It teaches us that, like an Amah Ivriyah, 1 an Eved Ivri is acquired with Kesef.
Refer to 15:12:4:1.
Rashi (in Mishpatim Sh'mos, 4:7): It teaches us that an Eved Ivri, like an Amah Ivriyah, does not go out in the event that the master destroys one of her limbs.
See Torah Temimah, note 41.
Having already taught us the Din regarding someone sold to be an Eved Ivri in Sh'mos, 21:2, why does the Torah repeat it here?
Rashi: Because of two new points that the Torah adds here that it did not mention there 1 1. To teach us that also an Amah Ivriyah 2 goes out after six years (and in the Yovel - Rashi in Mishpatim Sh'mos, 4:7); 2. The Din of Ha'anakah (providing the Eved Ivri with gifts when he leaves - See Pasuk 14). 3
Whom is "Va'avadcha" coming to exclude?
Kidushin, 17b: It excludes all the potential heirs - even his daughter - for whom the Eved Ivri is not obligated to work in the event that his master dies - with the exception of the master's son, 1
Kidushin, 14b: It precludes an Eved Ivri who sells himself from the Din of six years - who may therefore sell himself for even more than six years. 2
