Why does the Torah add the word "Kol Neveilah"?
Seforno: To include the Neveilah of a Tahor species in the prohibition.
Kerisos, 21a: To inorporate in the Isur the Nevelah of a Coy (which is an independent species - neither Beheimah nor a Chayah). 1
What is the definition of "Ger asher bi'She'arecha" to whom one gives the Neveilah?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: He is a Ger Toshav, who undertakes not to worship Avodah-Zarah 1 but still eats Neveilos.
Rashi (in Avodah-Zarah, 20a): And to keep the Sheva Mitzvos B'nei No'ach
What is the significance of the juxtaposition of the word "la'Ger asher bi'She'arecha ... " to "Lo Sochal Kol Neveilah"?
Avodah Zarah, 66b: It teaches us that Neveilah that is unfit for the consumption of a Ger is not considered Neveilah 1 and is permitted.
See Torah Temimah, note 30.
Why does the Torah write "Titnenah" by a Ger and "Machor" by a Nochri?
Pesachim, 22b: To teach us that that one should give Neveilah to a Ger Toshav free of charge, 1 but one may sell it to a Nochri. 2
Refer to 14:21:1.1:1*. 2
See Torah Temimah, note 31. See also Oznayim la'Torah, who discusses the two cases, and explains why the Torah inserts the words "asher bi'She'arecha" and "Va'achalah" by Ger.
What is the significance of the phrase "Ki Am Kadosh Atah"? Why does the Torah insert it here?
Rashi: To teach us that, in our capacity as a holy nation - we should sanctify ourselves even regarding issues that are permitted', 1 and that, consequently, one may not permit something that is permitted, to others who have taken upon themselves to be stringent concerning that issue'. 2
Ramban: With reference to "Lo Sevashel G'di ... ", the Torah is stating that, although it does not fall under the category of "To'evah" 3 it is nevertheless prohibited because we are holy with regard to our food, 4 or because it is cruel to use the mother's milk to cook its baby. 5
Chulin, 114a: To teach us, via a Gezeirah Shavah from T'reifah, in Mishpatim, 22:30 "ve'Anshei Kodesh Tih'yun Li" the prohibition against eating Basar ve'Chalav. 6
Chulin, 115b: To teach us, via a Gezeirah Shavah from the Isur of prostitution, in Ki Seitzei, 3:18 "Lo Yih'yeh Kadeish" that Basar ve'Chalav is Asur be'Hana'ah. 7
Why does the Torah juxtapose "Lo Sevashel G'di ... " to "la'Ger asher bi'She'arecha Titnenah ... "?
Chulin, 115b: To prohibit selling to a Nochri or giving to a Ger Toshav meat cooked together with milk - forbidding Basar ve'Chalav be'Hana'ah. 1
Oznayim la'Torah #1: After discussing the prohibition against eating Tamei species and Tahor species that were not Shechted properly, it teaches us that sometimes, one may not even eat Tahor species that have been Sheched properly. Oznayim la'Torah #2 (citing commentaries): The Torah inserts it to counter the likelihood of someone who before selling a Nevilah that has begun to go off to a Nochri, decides to cook it in milk in order to cover-up the bad odor and taste.
See Torah Temimah, note 32.
Why does the Torah repeat the Pasuk "Lo Sevashel G'di ba'Chalev Imo" three times?
Rashi: To preclude a Chayah, birds and a Tamei animal, 1 from the La'av.
Refer to Sh'mos, 23:19:5:1 and notes.
See Ba'al ha'Turim.
From where do we learn the Isur of eating milk together with meat?
What is the reason for the prohibition of eating Basar ve'Chalav?
Ramban: Refer to 14:21:2:2.
Seforno: Because that is what the Cana'anim used to do, thinking that it would bring about an increase in their flocks, their possessions and all their animals.
What are the connotations of "Lo Sevashel G'di ba'Chalev Imo"?
Refer to Sh'mos 23:19:5:1-9 and notes.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes here that the three repetitions of this preclude a Chayah, birds and a Tamei animal. But in Sh'mos (23:19), he wrote that they come to forbid eating meat cooked in milk, benefiting from it and cooking them together?
Sifsei Chachamim: There, Rashi explained what we learn from the repetition of the Isur. Here he explains what we learn from the triple repetition of the word "G'di".
