Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superluous) word "va'Yikchu be'Yadam" mi'Peri ha'Aretz?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the fruit of Eretz Yisrael was so big that it needed to be transported on animals' backs, 1 only due to the circumstances, they had to travel on foot together with the fruit - which they struggeled to carry back to the camp. 2
Oznayim la'Torah in Bereishis, 49:11.
Why, regarding the cluster of grapes, does the Torah use the expression "Vayoridu eilenu"?
Rashi: Because Eretz Yisrael is higher than all other lands.
Why does Moshe cite the Meraglim as saying "Tovah ha'Aretz..." without mentioning the bad report that they gave?
Rashi (citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: Because he is referring to Yehoshua and Calev who gave a good report of Eretz Yisrael. 1
Ramban #1 and Seforno: It refers to all the spies, since initially, 2 when they reported back to Moshe and the people, they all gave a good report. 3
Ramban #2: Moshe declined to mention the bad report of the spies and their punishment because he is only concerned here with the community at large, not with individuals.
Refer to Bamidbar 14:3:2:1.
And Moshe cited Yehoshua and Calev, and not the other spies, to rebuke the people for believing the spies in spite of the testimony of the two Tzadikim, who merely corroborated what Hashem had said. Refer to 1:25:3:1. (Ramban on Pasuk 37):
Refer to Bamidbar 13:32:2:1. See also Ramban here.
And Moshe cited the good side of their report to rebuke them for not having faith that Hashem would grant them success in driving out the Cana'anim and capturing the Land. Oznayim la'Torah: In any event, the other spies did not add the words "asher Hashem Elokeinu Nosein lanu" - and it was Moshe who added them. See Oznayim la'Torah.
Why did Moshe expect the people to believe the words of Yehoshua and Kalev more than those of the ten spies?
Ramban: Because a. Hashem told them that the land was good and b. the most senior and righteous of the spies corroborated it, they should have accepted it. 1
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "va'Yoridu eilenu" teaches that Eretz Yisrael is higher than all other lands. Why did he not extrappolate it from "Vaya'alu ha'Harah" (in Pasuk 24, or "Alu Zeh ba'Negev" (in Sh'lach-L'cha Bamidbar, 13:17)? And perhaps it is higher only than where B'nei Yisrael were, but not more than all other lands! And above - in Vayigash Bereishis 45:9 - Rashi learned this from "Va'alu el Avi"?
Gur Aryeh: We cannot learn from "Vaya'alu", which is an expression of good and first-rate. Also, perhaps the first place they went to was higher. "Vayoridu" would not apply only to the beginning of the descent. 1
Divrei David: "Va'Ya'alu" could apply to ascending the mountain. However, it says "va'Yoridu" after they came to 'Nachal Eshkol', a low place. Also, Moshe said Stam "ha'Harah"; this implies that the entire land is elevated. In Bereishis, Rashi explained why it says "va'Alu." He did not say that it teaches that Eretz Yisrael is higher. We learn only from here, that it says "va'Yoridu" and "ha'Harah"
He did not address the proof that Eretz Yisrael is higher than all other lands, nor Rashi in Bereishis. (PF)
