1)

What is "O be'Eivah" coming to include?

1.

Sanhedrin, 76b: It includes where the murderer pushes the victim into water or fire and holds him down. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 35.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Vehikahu be'Yado"?

1.

Sifri: To includes where the murderer killed the victim by pushing, strangling, kicking or squashing him.

3)

Why does the Torah insert the words "Rotze'ach Hu"?

1.

Rashi (in Mishpatim, 21:29): To preclude someone whose animal kills a person from the death penalty. 1


1

"Rotze'ach Hu"

4)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfkuous) word "Vayamos"?

1.

Sanhedrin, 84b: To teach us that wherever 'Haka'ah' appears not followed by 'va'Yamos', it refers to a wound but not to death. 1


1

See for example Mishpatim Sh'mos, 21:15 "Makeh Aviv ve'Imo Mos Yamus".

5)

Having aleady taught us that the Go'el ha'Dam should kill the murderer, why does the Torah repeat it here?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that if there is no Go'el ha'Dam, then someone else should volunteer to become the Go'el ha'Dam. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 40.

6)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "Mos Yumas ha'Makeh"?

1.

Sanhedrin, 45b: To teach us that, if for some reason, Beis-Din are unable to kill the murderer via the method prescribed by the Torah (Hereg - by the sword), then they may kill him in any way that they can.

7)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "be'Fig'o bo Hu Yemisenu"?

1.

Rashi: Refer to 35:19:4:1 and note.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that the Go'el ha'Dam, who doesn't always carry a sword, may kill him in any way that he can.

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