1)

Having already written "ve'eis ha'Keves ha'Sheini Ta'aseh bein ha'Arbayim" in Pasuk4, why does the Torah seee fit to repeat it?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that the Kohanim must bring the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim 1 even if they did not bring the Tamid shel Boker. 2

1

See Torah Temimah, note 26.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 27.

2)

What are the implications of "Re'ach Nicho'ach"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that Hashem derives Nachas Ru'ach (satisfaction) from the fact that His commands have been carried out.

2.

Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It implies that it is accepted by Hashem with goodwill.

3)

What re the ramifications of the comparison of the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the Tamid shel Boker?

1.

Yoma, 34a: It teaches us that the Ketores shel Bein ha'Arbayim precedes the Nesachim, like the Ketores shel Boker.

4)

Why does the Torah compare the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the Minchah shel Boker and not to the actusl Korban?

1.

Yoma 34a: To teach us that the Ketores shel bein ha'Arbayim precedes the Nesachim but not the Evarim, 1 which are brought in between the Ketores and the Nesachim. 2

1

As it does in the morning.

2

See Torah Temimsh, note 29.

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