1)

What are the implications of "Vayasem Hashem Davar be'Fi Bil'am"?

1.

Ramban #1 (citing commentaries) 1 : Hashem filled Bil'am's mouth with the words that he had to say, and they subsequently came out by themselves without his participation. 2

2.

Ramban #2: Hashem taught him what to say, "placing the words in his mouth" so that he should not forget them. 3

3.

Sanhedrin, 105b: It refers to a Mal'ach acccording to R. Eliezer, 4 and to a hook, according to R. Yonasan. 5


1

See R. Chavel's footnotes.

2

See Ramban's objection to this explanation based on the Pasuk "Shome'a Imrei Keil asher Machazeh Shakai Yechezeh" (24:4) - despite the fact that the Midrash Tanchuma seems to support it.

3

Ramban: As in Vayeilech Devarim, 31:11 and Shmuel 2, 13:32.

4

Who prevented from deviating from Hashem's instructions, whether he intended to curse or to bless. Torah Temimah, note 2.

5

Which prevented him from cursing against Hashem's instructions, but not from adding his own blessings. See Torah Temimah, note 2.

2)

Why does Hashem say "ve'Choh Sedaber" without telling us what He told him to say?

1.

Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim (on Pasuk 10): 'I said to Avraham (in Lech-L'cha Bereishis, 15:5) "Koh Yih'yeh Zar'echa." If so, you will not be able to exterminte them, since I said to increase them!'

2.

Riva (16, citing R. Ezri'el): Yisrael are numberless, as the Torah writes in Bereishis 15:5 "Koh Yih'yeh Zar'echa". 1


1

That is why Bil'am stated in Pasuk 10 - "Mi Manah Afar Ya'akov?"

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