What are the implications of "Vayasem Hashem Davar b'Fi Bil'am"?
Ramban #1 (citing commentaries)
: Hashem filled Bil'am's mouth with the words that he had to say, and they subsequently came out by themselves without his participation.
Ramban #2: Hashem taught him what to say, "placing the words in his mouth" so that he should not forget them.
See R. Chavel's footnotes.
See Ramban's objection to this explanation based on the Pasuk "Shome'a Imrei Keil asher Machazeh Shakai Yechezeh" (24:4) - despite the fact that the Midrash Tanchuma seems to support it.
Why does it say "v'Cho Sedaber"? It does not say here what Hashem told him!
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim (10): I said [to Avraham