What is the meaning of the "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" mean? What is the first half of the Pasuk teaching us?
Rashi #1: "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" means that someone purchases property from a Levi, and the Torah is teaching us that it reverts to the Levi in the Yovel. 1
Rashi #2: "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" means that the Levi comes to redeem his field or his house from the Levi who bought it from him, and the Torah is teaching us that he may redeem his property whenever he wishes, 2 even if the purchaser is a Levi, and that, when Yovel arrives, it reverts to him 3 .
Ramban #1: "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" refers to the owner himself or to another Levi who comes to redeem the field or the house from the purchaser, and the Torah is teaching us that whoever does so must redeem it having in mind to make a reckoning with the purchaser and pay the balance, 4 and in the Yovel it will revert to the owner. 5
Ramban #2 (citing Erchin, 33a): "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" refers to a Levi who comes to purchase the property of a Levi, 6 and the Torah is teaching us here that, in the event that the purchaser (redeemer) acquires the property, it reverts to the owner in the Yovel. 7
Rashbam: "va'Asher Yig'al min ha'Levi'im" refers to a Levi who wants to redeem his property, 8 and the Torah is teaching us that if does not possess the means to do so, it reverts to him anyway in the Yovel. 9
Rashi: Even though in the equivalent case, the property of a Yisrael remains in the domain of the purchaser (Refer to 25:30:1:1).
Rashi: As opposed to the house of a Yisrael in a walled town, which remains the purchaser's after one year.
Rashi: In the event that he fails to redeem it earlier, as the Pasuk goes on to explain.
Ramban: All this comes to clarify the previous Pasuk "Ge'u'las Olam Tih'yeh la'Levi'im".
Ramban: With reference to the Minhag of a close relative buying the seller's property, which is referred to as "Ge'ulah, like we find in Yirmiyah, 32:7 and in Rus, chapter 4, regarding Bo'az and Rus.
And the reason that the Torah does not present the current ruling with regard to a field that the Levi sold to a Yisrael is, either because it is obvious, since a Levi is included in the Din of a Yisrael (It is unclear what the Ramban means, seeing as the Din of a Levi is different than that of a Yisrael [Refer to 25:33:1:1*]), or because he is indeed not permitted to sell his inheritance to a Yisrael.
Rashbam: In keeping with the previous Pasuk.
Why, if a Levi sells a house is the Din different that if a Yisrael sells one?
Rashi: Because the Levi'im do not have a possession of fields and vineyards like Yisrael, only towns with their open spaces. 1 Therefore the Torah gives their houses the Din of fields, to redeem at all times, 2 to ensure that their inheritance remains intact.