Why does the Torah see fit to specifically mention "Ishah"?
Ramban (Devarim 17:2): Because 1 it is usually women who indulge in these practices. 2
Refer to Devarim 17:2:4:1*.
Ramban: And by the same token, it mentions "Mechasheifah", in Shemos, 22:17.
Why does the Torah write "Ish O Ishah" rather than "Ish ve'Ishah"?
Toras Kohanim: To include an Ov and a Yid'oni Tumtum and Androginus in the Din of Sekilah.
How do we reconcile this Pasuk, which prescribes stoning for Ov ve'Yid'oni, with Pasuk 6, which prescribes Kares?
Rashi: The perpetrator is stoned if there are witnesses and warning, and if not, Kares.
What is the connection between this Pasuk and the previous Pesukim?
Seforno: Seeing as the objective of all the current Mitzvos is to sanctify Yisrael, anyone who deviates from that, who turns to Ov and Yid'oni - whose essence abominates the Soul, deserves to be put to death by stoning.
Ba'al ha'Turim and Moshav Zekenim (citing the Sifri): Hashem separated us from the nations to place His Shechinah among us, 1 and we have no need of various types of sorcery to foretell the future like the other nations who have no Navi or anyone of consequence, and who therefore need Ov and Yid'oni.
