1)
Why does the Torah refer to Chukos ha'Goy (in the singular) and not 'ke'Chukos ha'Goyim'?
1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Many nations may have lived in Eretz Cana'an, each with there own religions and customs. However, when it came to the abominations mentioned in the current Parshah, they were united - as one!
2)
What are "Chukos ha'Goy Asher Ani Meshale'ach Mipneichem"?
1.
Refer to 18:3:2:1-3, 18:3:151:1-3 and the notes there.
3)
Why does it say "va'Akutz Bam"?
