1)

Why does the Torah juxtapose the Pashah of Arayos to the Parshah of Shechutei Chutz?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because eating meat (Basar Ta'avah) leads to a desire to be intimate (Ta'avas Besarim). As we find by Kivros ha'Ta'avah. 1


1

See Beha'aloscha, Bamidbar11:4-10 and Oznayim la'Torah.

2)

Why does the Torah introduce the Parshah of Arayos with the words "Ani Hashem Elokeichem"?

1.

Rashi 1 (citing Sifra): It is a warning that, having accepted Hashem's Sovereignty, 1 we are now obligated to accept His decrees.

2.

Rashi #2 (citing Rebbi in the Sifra): With the advance knowledge that, in the time of Ezra, Yisrael would cast off the yoke of the sin of Arayos, Hashem reminded them here that it was He who issues the decrees and that He will judge and punish them, on the one hand, and that He can be relied upon to reward, on the other. 2

3.

Ramban: It is a command to believe in Hashem and that He X is the G-d of Yisrael. 3

4.

Sifra: 'I am Hashem who punished the Dor ha'Mabul , the people of S'dom and the Egyptians, and I will punish you if youfollow in their footsteps!' 4

5.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because the Yeitzer ha'Ra of Giluy Arayos is the strongest desire that exists - as is evident from the fact that nit is the ponly sin that incorporates Yichud (a prohibition against seclusion). 5 It thererore serves as a reminder that Hashem sees and knows everything.


1

Rashi: When He declared "Anochi Hashem Elokecha" - Sh'mos, 20:2.

2

See Sifsei Chachamim.

3

This is how the Ramban explains the Mitzvah of "Anochi Hashem Elokecha" (Sh'mos 20:2), with which he equates the current Pasuk.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 1.

5

See Oznayim la'Torah.

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