1)

Why does the Pasuk use the word "Shafal" and not "Amok" (See Rashi) as it did in Pasuk 3?

1.

Ramban (in Pasuk 3): Because, since the Nega is a mixture of white and red and not pure white, it does not appear as deep as a Baheres on plain skin, which is pure white.

2.

Hadar Zekenim and Da'as Zekenim (both on Pasuk 3): "Shafal" means recessed into the skin. 1


1

Riva (on Pasuk 3): If it discusses the depth of the Nega, it should have omitted the word "Mar'ehah"?

2)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Nega Tzara'as Hi"?

1.

Ramban (on Pasuk 3): To teach the Kohen that he should immediately declare it Tamei, since it is a plague that will definitely turn into Tzara'as.

2.

Sifra: Having taught us - in Pasuk 19 - that in a Sh'chin, a Se'eis is Tamei via a white Nega, and a Baheres, via a combination of white and red, X it teaches us that the other way round is also considered a Si'man Tum'ah.

3)

Seeing as the Torah is discussing the Dinim of Sh'chin, why does it need to inser the word "ba'Shechin Parachah"?

1.

Sifra: 'To preclude where the Nega spreads from the Sh'chin to healthy flesh or to the skin of a burn spreads the skin of regular Basar or of a Michvah.

4)

Why is a Michyah inside the Sh'chin or the Michvah not a Si'man Tum'ah?

1.

Bartenura; Because a Michyah on the skin does not constitute "Basar Chai" 1 (until it has grown a crust 2 - Oznayim la'Torah citing the Rash).


1

See Pasuk 10.

2

Refer to 13:23:2:1.

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